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Old 11-27-2015, 02:06 AM
 
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If Americans have a right to acquire property, what is the source of this right?
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Old 11-27-2015, 02:17 AM
 
33,387 posts, read 34,863,645 times
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try the third amendment to the constitution for starters;

Quote:
Amendment 3 - Quartering of Soldiers. Ratified 12/15/1791. Note
No Soldier shall, in time of peace be quartered in any house, without the consent of the Owner, nor in time of war, but in a manner to be prescribed by law.
since it talks about consent of the OWNER of the house, then yes, citizens have the right to acquire property.
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Old 11-27-2015, 02:36 AM
 
Location: Vallejo
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Quote:
Originally Posted by rbohm View Post
try the third amendment to the constitution for starters;



since it talks about consent of the OWNER of the house, then yes, citizens have the right to acquire property.
That's not what he's talking about. He doesn't have the means. He wants someone to say that of course Americans have the right so he can point out that because he lacks the means he is being denied to the right to acquire property.
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Old 11-27-2015, 02:46 AM
 
Location: Windsor, Ontario, Canada
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Malloric View Post
That's not what he's talking about. He doesn't have the means. He wants someone to say that of course Americans have the right so he can point out that because he lacks the means he is being denied to the right to acquire property.
Like people who think they shouldn't be required to have a drivers license, since their inability to acquire one "limits their right to free travel". smh
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Old 11-27-2015, 02:48 AM
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Malloric View Post
That's not what he's talking about. He doesn't have the means. He wants someone to say that of course Americans have the right so he can point out that because he lacks the means he is being denied to the right to acquire property.

NO

I want you to acknowledge that acquiring property in this country is a privilege and that government extends this privilege to some on the basis of political considerations, which makes the privilege a matter of class warfare.

There is nothing to stop government from restricting property acquisition to the top 1 percent, e.g. many of the wealthiest communities allow only multi-acre property transfers.

Since the vast majority of municipalities are not in Top 1% territory, they necessarily lower their standards from this lofty goal, but they generally share in common an acquisition standard which more or less excludes the bottom third to bottom half of Americans.
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Old 11-27-2015, 02:56 AM
 
33,016 posts, read 27,477,048 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Magnatomicflux View Post
Like people who think they shouldn't be required to have a drivers license, since their inability to acquire one "limits their right to free travel". smh

Bad analogy.

Allowing an unqualified driver to motor down public roads puts the persons and property of others at risk, and thus is subject to proper regulation.

Applying a similar analogy to real property requires a classist position, viz, that the persons and property of others are put in jeopardy by allowing poorer people to acquire property. (Which is also an apple at which I want you to bite.)
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Old 11-27-2015, 03:11 AM
 
34,279 posts, read 19,388,318 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by freemkt View Post
NO

I want you to acknowledge that acquiring property in this country is a privilege and that government extends this privilege to some on the basis of political considerations, which makes the privilege a matter of class warfare.

There is nothing to stop government from restricting property acquisition to the top 1 percent, e.g. many of the wealthiest communities allow only multi-acre property transfers.

Since the vast majority of municipalities are not in Top 1% territory, they necessarily lower their standards from this lofty goal, but they generally share in common an acquisition standard which more or less excludes the bottom third to bottom half of Americans.
What you are looking to do is wordsmith a complexity that isn't really all there. Its nonsense. You are confusing the right with the means. municipalities are elected, and voting is not restricted to the 1%. You live in a community, participate in it and exercise your rights.
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Old 11-27-2015, 03:23 AM
 
33,016 posts, read 27,477,048 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by greywar View Post
What you are looking to do is wordsmith a complexity that isn't really all there. Its nonsense. You are confusing the right with the means. municipalities are elected, and voting is not restricted to the 1%. You live in a community, participate in it and exercise your rights.

There are indeed wealthy communities in this country which are run by the top 1 percent. I have never ever ever seen a zoning code which was written by the bottom 50 percent or by renters. Zoning exists for the protection and benefit of property owners; as such it is an issue of great interest and concern of homeowners and of little import to renters.

A right which cannot be exercised by 40 percent of the country is hardly a right, and there is nothing in this country to stop governments from excluding the bottom 30 percent or the bottom 60 percent or the bottom 99 percent.
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Old 11-27-2015, 03:25 AM
 
Location: Vallejo
21,868 posts, read 25,173,926 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by freemkt View Post
NO

I want you to acknowledge that acquiring property in this country is a privilege and that government extends this privilege to some on the basis of political considerations, which makes the privilege a matter of class warfare.

There is nothing to stop government from restricting property acquisition to the top 1 percent, e.g. many of the wealthiest communities allow only multi-acre property transfers.

Since the vast majority of municipalities are not in Top 1% territory, they necessarily lower their standards from this lofty goal, but they generally share in common an acquisition standard which more or less excludes the bottom third to bottom half of Americans.
And you'd be incorrect. You just don't understand the distinction between right and entitlement. While the words are similar, they don't have identical meanings.
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Old 11-27-2015, 03:27 AM
 
Location: Vallejo
21,868 posts, read 25,173,926 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by freemkt View Post
There are indeed wealthy communities in this country which are run by the top 1 percent. I have never ever ever seen a zoning code which was written by the bottom 50 percent or by renters. Zoning exists for the protection and benefit of property owners; as such it is an issue of great interest and concern of homeowners and of little import to renters.

A right which cannot be exercised by 40 percent of the country is hardly a right, and there is nothing in this country to stop governments from excluding the bottom 30 percent or the bottom 60 percent or the bottom 99 percent.
More than 60% of the country is homeowners so it's clearly a right that not only can be exercised by all of the bottom 40% but in fact is exercised by the bottom 40%.
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