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What your are saying that you would not sell a clients place to me if I made an offer?
No, I cannot sell you something I do not. I would present your offer to the seller and the seller can decide to sell it to you.
So far in this thread you've confused commissions, agent roles, property ownership, and rebating. You also may be attempting to commit a crime if this is a case of torturous interference. I'm going to say from what I've read you don't need to represent yourself in a transaction.
I never get into the "tortious influence" discussion. It's no big deal to get hung up on.
But, there is a TON of cogency in the net payment point. Why would the OP worry about the commission if the net payment for the property is acceptable?
It's just another case of wrong focus, assuming that the real goal is to buy property.
Some agents might offer some small discount, but the fact is that the commission rate is a contractual agreement between the seller and the broker. The buyer has no part of that contract and has no right to interfere with that contract.
When you make your offer on the home, you can ask for a 3% concession towards closing costs. This would be like getting a discount or making an offer of 3% less than asking price. Usually the concession is considered only when making an offer on the full asking price.
No, I cannot sell you something I do not. I would present your offer to the seller and the seller can decide to sell it to you.
So far in this thread you've confused commissions, agent roles, property ownership, and rebating. You also may be attempting to commit a crime if this is a case of torturous interference. I'm going to say from what I've read you don't need to represent yourself in a transaction.
Do you ever wonder why nobody can point you to any case law on tortious interference in regards to a buyer representing himself and asking the seller to agree to do something like rebate a commission?
I know the answer. But I'd sure love to hear an agent explain it to me.
Do you ever wonder why nobody can point you to any case law on tortious interference in regards to a buyer representing himself and asking the seller to agree to do something like rebate a commission?
I know the answer. But I'd sure love to hear an agent explain it to me.
Rather than waiting for someone to step in it, how about just telling us? I would really appreciate your sharing the answer and I imagine many others would, too.
Do you ever wonder why nobody can point you to any case law on tortious interference in regards to a buyer representing himself and asking the seller to agree to do something like rebate a commission?
I know the answer. But I'd sure love to hear an agent explain it to me.
I cannot explain it, but as noted, I don't find that "riotous influence" very compelling.
So, PLEASE, can you DM me the facts, because technical curiosity will keep me awake tonight.
I have a hunch that "riotous influence" would weigh just TONS heavier on my license and professional standing than it would on the unlicensed consumer.
Do you ever wonder why nobody can point you to any case law on tortious interference in regards to a buyer representing himself and asking the seller to agree to do something like rebate a commission?
I know the answer. But I'd sure love to hear an agent explain it to me.
No, which is why I asked you in the previous post for an explanation. Honestly, whether it is or it isn't I can't imagine that there are many instances where the commission vs the cost of legal fees and time make much sense to pursue. However, if you want to explain I'd love your side. Genuinely interested as I like to learn.
Well, I only wasted 15 seconds. It was still too much.
Drink beer and talk to buds during warmups, and stick around for the game.....
Actually, it was pretty funny after you got a minute or two in.
Not that I want a movie date with PeeWee, or anything....
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And, the Secret Word is: "Tortious Influence!"
