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I recently bought a home, the note is solely in my name but the deed is in both our names. I feel I was scammed on that part due to the law firm she works for did the paperwork. Of course the relationship is terrible. Hence on here looking for help. What legal rights do I have, if any, to boot her out? She makes no payments nor contributes to the loan. I can't sell it, haven't been in the home for more than 4 months and I just refinanced my loan. I can't afford to move out and pay rent when I'm paying a mortgage loan.
I would just leave if she could take over the loan but she doesn't make enough for a loan. Any help??
This is sometimes done when the couple wants to purchase a home but one has terrible credit that would ruin a purchase and the other has exceelent credit.
Yeah, of course you were scammed if you didn't get information on what's what before settling on the house.
Maybe you could figure out how to accuse the attorney in this.
You didn't notice only your name was on the deed? How was this presented to you? You could have some legal grounds.
If the relationship is terrible, why did you buy a house with her?
Ask her to either start making payments or quit claim her interest to you. Maybe she'll be nice. If you don't pay off the mortgage note, though, she's not going to get to keep any interest in the property when it gets foreclosed.
What state are you in? Is it a community property state? If so, you both own the property even if only one of you makes the payments, if it's the marital homestead.
And, yes, why did you buy a home with her if the relationship is so bad that this is upsetting you?
This is why it is dumb to buy a piece of property with a SO before marriage or without a written contract that anticipates the possibility that things might not work out. He cannot even go to a divorce court to resolve this mess.
For years I owned my own business so income verification was an issue. We bought houses based on my wife's income and credit. The mortgage/note/loan was in her name but the title was in both our names. A common practice.
We were not trying to "screw over" each other as maybe the OP is or thinks he has been.
This is why it is dumb to buy a piece of property with a SO before marriage or without a written contract that anticipates the possibility that things might not work out. He cannot even go to a divorce court to resolve this mess.
I'm looking in the OP (which is the only post by this poster) as to where he indicates that the relationship is either marriage or SO. Can't find it. Where are you seeing it?
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