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Old 03-28-2019, 03:55 PM
 
Location: Salem, OR
15,579 posts, read 40,446,371 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by 2bindenver View Post
What about doing the preview and a neighbor stops to ask about buying then selling theirs. Do you bill twice?
Well the neighbor isn't a client yet so you wouldn't have any billing time. Each of my hourly starts at a base that includes time spent so far. So if I spent an hour talking to the neighbor, then they would get billed that hour when we start the contract.
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Old 03-29-2019, 09:16 AM
 
10,609 posts, read 5,653,143 times
Reputation: 18905
Quote:
Originally Posted by bbronston View Post
Here we go again...people just refuse to read the listing contract. The seller is not paying a penny to the buyer’s broker. The seller pays x% to the listing broker...period. The rest of the language is just a disclosure to the seller that the seller’s broker intends to offer a portion of their fee (the money the seller pays the listing broker) to another cooperating broker, if there is one.

This notion that the buyer should pay or that the seller is paying for the cooperating broker is nothing but a 100% misunderstanding of the contract and the way the system works.
One of the fundamental lessons of economics is that the statutory payer of a tax such as a real estate commission is independent from the party that bears the ultimate burden of that tax (commission).

The party that bears the ultimate burden is a function of the price-elasticity of demand and the price-elasticity of supply (the respective slopes of the supply and demand curves we all learned about in Econ 101.)

In a nutshell:
  • If it is a "seller's market" (a very steep demand curve and shallow supply curve), the buyer bears most of the economic burden of the tax (commission).
  • If it is a "buyer's market" (a very shallow demand curve and a steep supply curve), the seller bears most of the economic burden of the tax (commission).

A more complete description can be found here:
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