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QUESTION: To any and all females reading this forum (asked by a male): When do most women reach menopause (and therefore can't get pregnant anymore)?
I didn't see any applicable sub-forum within the "Health and Wellness" forum of C-D.com nor any other C-D forum where reproductive questions and concerns are meant to be directed . . . so it seemed the only option was to post this question in the Relationships forum.
I am a male senior now (though a young senior), in quite good shape, and still quite sexually capable. I would normally be inclined to seek women of my own generation or nearly so, rather than young women in their 20s or 30s. Maybe not even those in their 40s . . . though I have thought about if I would even allow myself to get involved with a women even in her late 40s (e.g., 48, 49). I certainly would consider women in their 50s (and then of course in their 60s, as I am). It seems to vary as to when a women reaches full menopause (becoming wholly incapable of becoming pregnant anymore). Can it be assumed by me that the greatest majority of women, by their late 40s (i.e., 48, 49) stop menstruating and that this is a sign that she cannot get pregnant anymore? And then can I assume that the near-overwhelming majority have reached menopause once they have reached even 50? 52? 55? 58?
The point is that I am not seeking to have children anymore and, though birth control on one or both of our parts can certainly help prevent pregnancy, it would be very nice and welcome, at this later age and stage of life that both the man and woman are at (e.g., with me in my low 60s now but still wholly capable and virile and if she would happen to be in her late 40s or whatever age in her 50s), if we could just enjoy each other wholly without risking pregnancy and even without having to use any protections (although we all know that, even with protection, sometimes pregnancy can and does occur). Although one can think of still using protections if concerned about minimizing the risk of STDs . . . but if I and a woman get to know each other well enough first and then even go to an STD Clinic at a hospital to get tested for the broad cross-section of STDs and get to see one another's results and discuss them with the medical personnel there as needed and do this all before ever getting sexually intimate and we find that we each have a clean bill of health regarding STDs and we feel that we can trust one another to be faithful and not expose one another to risks of catching STDs from others, it would be very nice and welcome to just be able to enjoy one another without having to use contraception of whatever type. But then, if she can't get pregnant in the first place because she has already reached menopause by her age, then the pregnancy dimension doesn't even need to be taken into account by myself or herself at all.
So, to all the females reading this thread (and especially those of the later-middle-age ages in their 40s or 50s and even in their 60s): What is your OWN knowledge from life experience at-large or your own personal experience or those experiences of other women you know or have known, as to when (age-wise) it tends to be that the great majority of women definitively reach menopase and hence can't become pregnant anymore? What are the most typical ranges you've known or seen?
I have family members who had babies at age 48 and 52. Of course, they had other children. A woman who has never had a child tends to enter menopause earlier, as they have released all their eggs. We have a finite number we are born with. They were natural pregnancies, because it was before all the fertility stuff.
Most women start peri menopause between 45 and 55. You have fluctuating fertility and hormones. Most women are in menopause after age 52-55. Some women have periods without ovulation.
Hope you know there is more to using protection than just preventing pregnancy. It's that kind of attitude that has made the STD rate among older Americans skyrocket. If you use it....wrap it up.
QUESTION: To any and all females reading this forum (asked by a male): When do most women reach menopause (and therefore can't get pregnant anymore)?
I didn't see any applicable sub-forum within the "Health and Wellness" forum of C-D.com nor any other C-D forum where reproductive questions and concerns are meant to be directed . . . so it seemed the only option was to post this question in the Relationships forum.
I am a male senior now (though a young senior), in quite good shape, and still quite sexually capable. I would normally be inclined to seek women of my own generation or nearly so, rather than young women in their 20s or 30s. Maybe not even those in their 40s . . . though I have thought about if I would even allow myself to get involved with a women even in her late 40s (e.g., 48, 49). I certainly would consider women in their 50s (and then of course in their 60s, as I am). It seems to vary as to when a women reaches full menopause (becoming wholly incapable of becoming pregnant anymore). Can it be assumed by me that the greatest majority of women, by their late 40s (i.e., 48, 49) stop menstruating and that this is a sign that she cannot get pregnant anymore? And then can I assume that the near-overwhelming majority have reached menopause once they have reached even 50? 52? 55? 58?
The point is that I am not seeking to have children anymore and, though birth control on one or both of our parts can certainly help prevent pregnancy, it would be very nice and welcome, at this later age and stage of life that both the man and woman are at (e.g., with me in my low 60s now but still wholly capable and virile and if she would happen to be in her late 40s or whatever age in her 50s), if we could just enjoy each other wholly without risking pregnancy and even without having to use any protections (although we all know that, even with protection, sometimes pregnancy can and does occur). Although one can think of still using protections if concerned about minimizing the risk of STDs . . . but if I and a woman get to know each other well enough first and then even go to an STL Clinic at a hospital to get tested for the broad cross-section of STDs and get to see one another's results and discuss them with the medical personnel there as needed and do this all before ever getting sexually intimate and we find that we each have a clean bill of health regarding STDs and we feel that we can trust one another to be faithful and not expose one another to risks of catching STDs from others, it would be very nice and welcome to just be able to enjoy one another without having to use contraception of whatever type. But then, if she can't get pregnant in the first place because she has already reached menopause by her age, then the pregnancy dimension doesn't even need to be taken into account by myself or herself at all.
So, to all the females reading this thread (and especially those of the later-middle-age ages in their 40s or 50s and even in their 60s): What is your OWN knowledge from life experience at-large or your own personal experience or those experiences of other women you know or have known, as to when (age-wise) it tends to be that the great majority of women definitively reach menopase and hence can't become pregnant anymore? What are the most typical ranges you've known or seen?
Quote:
Originally Posted by ScarletG
Hope you know there is more to using protection than just preventing pregnancy. It's that kind of attitude that has made the STD rate among older Americans skyrocket. If you use it....wrap it up.
Did you not see and read my third paragraph, where I explicity said all of the following?:
"Although one can think of still using protections if concerned about minimizing the risk of STDs . . . but if I and a woman get to know each other well enough first and then even go to an STD Clinic at a hospital to get tested for the broad cross-section of STDs and get to see one another's results and discuss them with the medical personnel there as needed and do this all before ever getting sexually intimate and we find that we each have a clean bill of health regarding STDs and we feel that we can trust one another to be faithful and not expose one another to risks of catching STDs from others, it would be very nice and welcome to just be able to enjoy one another without having to use contraception of whatever type." <-- EXTRA ADDITION TO THE LAST SENTENCE: ". . . IF it has been predetermined beforehand that she has definitely reached the stage of full menopause (and hence concern about causing pregnancy with her is not necessary anymore)."
I most certainly DO know that there is more to protection than just preventing pregnancy (hence, I mentioned it at-length in my posting). Even though I haven't been sexually active in a good while, I even still went by myself just last week to an STD Clinic at a major medical school-affiliated hospital to be screened and spoke with them about these matters. One can even prospectively catch organisms from various invasive medical or surgical procedures and there are STDS (e.g., HPV or human papillomavirus) that can even be transmitted by skin-to-skin contact even without any penetration or oral contact with the various bodily openings or orifices. Though when the medical counselor was probed at length about this, she said that "skin-to-skin contact" meant "crotch to crotch" (i.e., that it didn't mean simple hugging, holding, or cuddling with one another . . . even if while both persons are naked).
I have family members who had babies at age 48 and 52. Of course, they had other children. A woman who has never had a child tends to enter menopause earlier, as they have released all their eggs. We have a finite number we are born with. They were natural pregnancies, because it was before all the fertility stuff.
Most women start peri menopause between 45 and 55. You have fluctuating fertility and hormones. Most women are in menopause after age 52-55. Some women have periods without ovulation.
Can a woman tell all by herself that she has reached the stage of "full menopause" (not just "peri menipause") or must this be determined with certitude by examination and testing by an OB-GYN?
Is a "period without ovulation" an indicative sign of having reached "full menopause"? is It even possible to have a period AT ALL (without or without ovulation) after one has reached full menopause?
No, you can't assume anything. The late 40's is early-ish. (Though there's all kinds of individual variation.) I've heard a bit about women going through that around the mid-50's. A friend of mine said her aunt went through it at 60. A knew a couple of women who had kids naturally, no hormonal enhancements or anything, at 50 and 51.
Can a woman tell all by herself that she has reached the stage of "full menopause" (not just "peri menipause") or must this be determined with certifude by examination and testing by an OB-GYN?
When your period stops, that's the onset of menopause. If you have no further period or spotting after that for a full year, you're then officially post-menopausal, and you're free and clear re: needing to use BC. During that year, you should continue to use BC, in case it's not completely over yet.
OP, when you got checked, did you request a Herpes test? Some people have said that's not included in the routine STD test unless specifically requested.
When your period stops, that's the onset of menopause. If you have no further period or spotting after that for a full year, you're then officially post-menopausal, and you're free and clear re: needing to use BC. During that year, you should continue to use BC, in case it's not completely over yet.
Yes, this is the definition. However there are exceptions. Some women don't have periods when they are younger for various reasons and return to full fertility.
I would say 100% of women by age 60 will not get pregnant without means to prevent it. Probably by age 50 chances are very very small, but it just depends on the woman.
When your period stops, that's the onset of menopause. If you have no further period or spotting after that for a full year, you're then officially post-menopausal, and you're free and clear re: needing to use BC. During that year, you should continue to use BC, in case it's not completely over yet.
OP, when you got checked, did you request a Herpes test? Some people have said that's not included in the routine STD test unless specifically requested.
Yes, I requested EVERYTHING (I am cautious and paranoid . . . though my chance of having anything was extremely slim). I think the last time that I was inside a woman is when I visited the Statue of Liberty. (just a joke!)
Yes, this is the definition. However there are exceptions. Some women don't have periods when they are younger for various reasons and return to full fertility.
I would say 100% of women by age 60 will not get pregnant without means to prevent it. Probably by age 50 chances are very very small, but it just depends on the woman.
Yes, 60 is the upper limit, OP. Take nothing for granted. If she's still having periods, even if infrequently, there's still a chance she could get pregnant. It's unlikely, but you wouldn't want a surprise. Late pregnancies like that may not come to term, but who wants to go through a still birth, or something at that age, or any age?
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