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Old 07-08-2009, 10:50 AM
 
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Here are two quotes from publications regarding homicide. Do you all find these two statements to be contradictory or complimentary or neither?

"A powerful example of the importance of contextual considerations is found in the case of spousal murders, for which the female share of offending is quite high - at least one third, and perhaps as much as one half." (Steffensmeier, 1996)

"Although women are much less likely than men to be the victims of crime, they are much more likely than men to be the victims of intimate-partner violence, especially lethal violence." (Heimer & Kruttschnitt, 2006)
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Old 07-08-2009, 10:53 AM
 
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Well, the first quotation is written in academic gobbledegook and could mean just about anything. I mean, what the hell does "contextual considerations" mean? What about "female share of offending?" It's obvious that the author of that pile of steaming dung never had a decent editor.
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Old 07-08-2009, 10:54 AM
 
Location: Incognito
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What is the "main" motive for these homicides? Cheating?
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Old 07-08-2009, 10:54 AM
 
Location: Up above the world so high!
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Quote:
Originally Posted by blazejen View Post
Here are two quotes from publications regarding homicide. Do you all find these two statements to be contradictory or complimentary or neither?

"A powerful example of the importance of contextual considerations is found in the case of spousal murders, for which the female share of offending is quite high - at least one third, and perhaps as much as one half." (Steffensmeier, 1996)

"Although women are much less likely than men to be the victims of crime, they are much more likely than men to be the victims of intimate-partner violence, especially lethal violence." (Heimer & Kruttschnitt, 2006)
Not contradictory at all. Women murder their abusive spouses, maybe as many as 50% of them. They are much more likely than men to be victims of domestic violence - seems like cause and effect to me.
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Old 07-08-2009, 10:57 AM
 
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Originally Posted by lovesMountains View Post
Not contradictory at all. Women murder their abusive spouses, maybe as many as 50% of them. They are much more likely than men to be victims of domestic violence - seems like cause and effect to me.
Right - in every violent crime except for murdering a spouse, women show much lower rates of offending.

However, the second quote says, "Women are much more likely to be the victims of lethal violence". i.e. murder, not just domestic violence.

I think those two quotes are totally at odds unless spousal murder differs significant from intimate partner murder, which would be an interesting study.
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Old 07-08-2009, 11:01 AM
 
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cpg - that statement was preceded by "the more serious the offense, the greater the contextual differences by gender." - It's just an overly rhetoricized discussion of gender and crime. And I'll give you more if you want, but the thing that gets me is that the first says that women commit perhaps half of all spouse killings (meaning the man is the victim perhaps half of the time) and then another reputable publication turns around and claims women are much more likely to be the victims of spousal homicide.

And, thank you Mr. Cat, I've no idear. I bet, based on the domestic violence portion, most women who kill their spouses have a history of abuse. But I'm just guessin'... but then I bet men who kill their spouses do so out of jealousy? What think ye?
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Old 07-08-2009, 11:08 AM
 
Location: Alaska
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Not contradictory. The first only states that female offending is higher than expected, but still under 50%. The second states that women are more likely to be victims, which just needs to be something over 50% to be true. So both statements can be true, but are just a different way of looking at the statistics.
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Old 07-08-2009, 11:13 AM
 
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Originally Posted by akck View Post
Not contradictory. The first only states that female offending is higher than expected, but still under 50%. The second states that women are more likely to be victims, which just needs to be something over 50% to be true. So both statements can be true, but are just a different way of looking at the statistics.
I agree with that interpretation - that women are more likely to be victims of spousal homicide. But I don't think just over half is "much more likely".

I feel like that's a stretch of interpretation that shows a will to portray women in their expected role as victim.
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Old 07-08-2009, 11:45 AM
 
Location: Whoville....
25,386 posts, read 35,551,149 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by blazejen View Post
Here are two quotes from publications regarding homicide. Do you all find these two statements to be contradictory or complimentary or neither?

"A powerful example of the importance of contextual considerations is found in the case of spousal murders, for which the female share of offending is quite high - at least one third, and perhaps as much as one half." (Steffensmeier, 1996)

"Although women are much less likely than men to be the victims of crime, they are much more likely than men to be the victims of intimate-partner violence, especially lethal violence." (Heimer & Kruttschnitt, 2006)
No. The first one says that women are the offenders in 1/3 to 1/2 of spousal murders. The second speaks to intimate-partner violence, which may or may not result in murder. Two different subjects but they're in agreement.

The first says that 1/2 to 2/3 of murdered spouses are women. The second says women are more likely to be victims of intimate partner violence, especially lethal violence.
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Old 07-08-2009, 11:46 AM
 
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lethal violence = murder
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