Quote:
Originally Posted by deadwood
So then if ability to speak is just a result of a physical existence in nature, then it must follow that mankind's ability to communicate using the written spoken word evolved also. Moses was raised and taught in all the wisdom of Egypt, yet Egypt being the most advanced civilization up to that period in man's history, they used hieroglyphics which are merely symbols which required someone to tell the tale. So how did Moses formulate the process of writing the written spoken word.
And he gave unto Moses, when he had made an end of communing with him upon mount Sinai, two tables of testimony, tables of stone, written with the finger of God. Ex 31:18
that he might make thee know that man doth not live by bread only, but by every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of the LORD doth man live. Deut 8:3
And the LORD delivered unto me two tables of stone written with the finger of God; Deut 9:10
But Jesus stooped down, and with his finger wrote on the ground, as though he heard them not. John 8:6
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I will recommend to you the post by Jaymax in which he addresses many of your - let's be honest, here - "mystical" ideas of the "Word" with a capital "W".
Moses did not invent writing - that is a ridiculous idea, if that is what you intended. Writing had been in existence long before the Israelites ever formed as a nation - whether it was via hieroglyphs, cuneiform, or abcedieries. We have millions (literally) of examples from the Ancient Near East of this, many of which are still being collated and translated for study: that's how much we have.
Additionally, what makes you think that Egypt was the most advanced civilization up to "that" point - whatever "that" point is?
The passage you quoted is merely a narrative of Yahweh handing down the precepts of the Torah to Moses to deliver to the people. It says nothing of Jesus, of "The Word", the invention of writing or anything like that. It's pretty clear without the need to mystify it with extra details that are not in the Biblical text. In fact, your entire post is a bit too mystical and extra-Biblical for me. The Gospel of John and his concept of "The Word made flesh" has no bearing on our topic, really. It is the Hellenistic musings of a Gospel writer who was too influenced by Greek philosophy and Platonism. As for the passage concerning Jesus - seems you made a big
non sequitur there in all reality. So Jesus wrote on the ground. Ok. Is now a good time to mention that the entire episode of the "Women Taken in Adultery" is not found in any of our earliest manuscripts and is thus known to have been a much later addition to the Gospel - one that the author of John never wrote? A fascinating story, though it is, it belongs with the additional ending to the Gospel of Mark in which believers are said to "take up serpents": another late addition that is presented in brackets and a big footnote in most Bibles nowadays.
So I'm wary to take any evidence from that passage of John in this discussion about Moses, not to mention anything from the New Testament to begin with. We do not need the Greek New Testament - a Christian work - to understand a portion of the Hebrew Bible that is already clear in it's message.