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In addition to some possible results mentioned in the article it will also change the narrative a bit in politics when people who don't deep dive the numbers claim XX% of the population live in urban areas when many of those areas are towns with 3000 people that are located in the middle of the middle of nowhere.
This makes sense, as our population grows, and living patterns change.
I know in Texas, when you hit 5,000, you're allowed to be a "city", and can self govern. Below 5,000, you are a town and are very limited in what you can do (mostly at the mercy of county rules).
Location: East of Seattle since 1992, 615' Elevation, Zone 8b - originally from SF Bay Area
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Definitions are just generalizations made to suit the purpose of those creating them. We are a city of 65,000, considered an Exurb, but with many rural areas. In my neighborhood there are still standing old-growth trees (3 on our lot), standing wood a few blocks away, and lots are at least 1/3 acre. Less than two miles away there are farms with horses, Llamas, Alpacas. We have no big box stores, just small strip malls, with recently built condos and apartments near them. It's a mix of urban, suburban and rural.
I can remember living in an unincorporated area (still is) population was 5,500 now we have at least doubled that and along with that came more traffic, people, traffic signals and freeway changes.
What about areas like mine in which there are a large number of housing units that are only occupied during May through October?
Although my specific town has a year-round population of less than 500, in the summer months, I would guess that the population of those who reside here (not just vacation here) would at least quadruple because of those people who have two homes -- one here and one in some place like Florida where the spend the winter months. Of course, that would still mean that my town would still be counted as rural, but what of other towns like mine in which the year-round population might be 5,000 but there would be 20,000 people claiming residency here in "prime" months?
What about areas like mine in which there are a large number of housing units that are only occupied during May through October?
Although my specific town has a year-round population of less than 500, in the summer months, I would guess that the population of those who reside here (not just vacation here) would at least quadruple because of those people who have two homes -- one here and one in some place like Florida where the spend the winter months. Of course, that would still mean that my town would still be counted as rural, but what of other towns like mine in which the year-round population might be 5,000 but there would be 20,000 people claiming residency here in "prime" months?
Do those 20,000 claim "residency"? It would be a pain in the ass to do so and change all your documentation twice a year (car registration, voter registration, local wage tax withholding if any, etc.).
You might see an anomaly in crime rates that are calculated using permanent resident numbers even though you have a high temporary population. Ocean City, MD is like that. It has 10,000 permanent residents but 300,000 on a summer weekend. Any crime committed by the visitors is calculated using permanent numbers making it seem that it's a crime ridden cesspool.
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