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13 Then Jesus came from Galilee to the Jordan to be baptized by John. 14 But John tried to deter him, saying, “I need to be baptized by you, and do you come to me?” 15 Jesus replied, “Let it be so now; it is proper for us to do this to fulfill all righteousness.” Then John consented. 16 As soon as Jesus was baptized, he went up out of the water. At that moment heaven was opened, and he saw the Spirit of God descending like a dove and alighting on him.17 And a voice from heaven said, “This is my Son, whom I love; with him I am well pleased.”
That is the moment when man jesus became divine Christ.
I know a lot more than you...You obviously get your Greek from biased sources...
Well, you know, Richard, you may think our view is obviously biased, and you make a good case for the fact that the masculine form of the words is the same as the neuter form so that we could use the word "it" instead of "him" or "he" in those first few verses of John. but then we come to verse 14: Καὶ ὁ Λόγος σὰρξ ἐγένετο καὶ ἐσκήνωσεν ἐν ἡμῖν, καὶ ἐθεασάμεθα τὴν δόξαν αὐτοῦ, δόξαν ὡς μονογενοῦς παρὰ Πατρός, πλήρης χάριτος καὶ ἀληθείας.
Could you explain how the Word becoming flesh could mean something neuter?
Well, you know, Richard, you may think our view is obviously biased, and you make a good case for the fact that the masculine form of the words is the same as the neuter form so that we could use the word "it" instead of "him" or "he" in those first few verses of John. but then we come to verse 14: Καὶ ὁ Λόγος σὰρξ ἐγένετο καὶ ἐσκήνωσεν ἐν ἡμῖν, καὶ ἐθεασάμεθα τὴν δόξαν αὐτοῦ, δόξαν ὡς μονογενοῦς παρὰ Πατρός, πλήρης χάριτος καὶ ἀληθείας.
Could you explain how the Word becoming flesh could mean something neuter?
Well, you know, Richard, you may think our view is obviously biased, and you make a good case for the fact that the masculine form of the words is the same as the neuter form so that we could use the word "it" instead of "him" or "he" in those first few verses of John. but then we come to verse 14: Καὶ ὁ Λόγος σὰρξ ἐγένετο καὶ ἐσκήνωσεν ἐν ἡμῖν, καὶ ἐθεασάμεθα τὴν δόξαν αὐτοῦ, δόξαν ὡς μονογενοῦς παρὰ Πατρός, πλήρης χάριτος καὶ ἀληθείας.
Could you explain how the Word becoming flesh could mean something neuter?
I just know how language works better than most here...I've been studying them for over 40 years...I understand their nuances...
Well, you know, Richard, you may think our view is obviously biased, and you make a good case for the fact that the masculine form of the words is the same as the neuter form so that we could use the word "it" instead of "him" or "he" in those first few verses of John. but then we come to verse 14: Καὶ ὁ Λόγος σὰρξ ἐγένετο καὶ ἐσκήνωσεν ἐν ἡμῖν, καὶ ἐθεασάμεθα τὴν δόξαν αὐτοῦ, δόξαν ὡς μονογενοῦς παρὰ Πατρός, πλήρης χάριτος καὶ ἀληθείας.
Could you explain how the Word becoming flesh could mean something neuter?
Actually, you can just refer to John 1:10 in which the masculine accusative case of αὐτος is used of the Word. The masculine accusative case (the direct object) is αὐτὸν. However, the neuter accusative case is αὐτὸ which is different than the masculine accusative case. In other words, the Word is being unmistakably referred to in John 1:10 in the masculine gender.
Only in the genitive case (the possessive case), and in the dative case (the indirect object) do the masculine and neuter genders have the same suffix. In the nominative and accusative cases the suffixes for the masculine and neuter genders are different.
Singular Nominative case; αὐτος [masculine]; αὐτό [neuter] <--- different suffixes
Singular Genitive case; αὐτοῦ [masculine]; αὐτοῦ [neuter] <--- the same suffix
Singular Dative case; αὐτῷ [masculine]; αὐτῷ [neuter] <--- the same suffix
Singular Accusative case; αὐτὸν [masculine]; αὐτὸ [neuter] <--- different suffixes
And if you want more, in John 1:7 John the Baptist is referred to with the demonstrative pronoun οὗτος (houtos) which means 'this.' οὗτος is the singular masculine gender and τοῦτο is the singular neuter gender. But because οὗτος immediately follows the reference to John in verse 6, it is legitimate to translate it as (He). Of course it could also be translated as 'this one.'
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