Is there a time limit for billing for medical procedures here? (insurance, credit report)

[CieloIn20]

We received a bill last month from a local medical office for a procedure that had been performed in June of 2016. We had already paid what we understood we owed (what insurance didn't cover) back in 2016.
When we asked them why we were being billed again, and more than a year later, they said the practice had been bought out, and the new owners were revisiting the books and correcting them.

Does anybody know if there is any kind of law in Texas that sets a time limit for this kind of thing?

[EDS_]

Originally Posted by CieloIn20

We received a bill last month from a local medical office for a procedure that had been performed in June of 2016. We had already paid what we understood we owed (what insurance didn't cover) back in 2016.
When we asked them why we were being billed again, and more than a year later, they said the practice had been bought out, and the new owners were revisiting the books and correcting them.

Does anybody know if there is any kind of law in Texas that sets a time limit for this kind of thing?

1. I'd need to see absolute proof that the earlier billing was in error before I spent ten seconds worrying about this. Even if their numbers are right it took them more than a year to bill you.........I'd need at least three years to pay the shortfall if I paid it at all.

2. My position would be, as I'm sure your position is, you got a bill and in good faith paid it and have considered the matter closed since the moment they accepted payment per their terms and bill.

3. I'm sure there is fine print in the contract that they will say allows them to bill underages more or less forever. I'd want to see proof that they are refunding overages as well.

4. At the worst my position would likely be to make a 15% cash offer on the new charge to make this go away and remember who these jokers are and run them down privately forever.

[CieloIn20]

Originally Posted by EDS_

1. I'd need to see absolute proof that the earlier billing was in error before I spent ten seconds worrying about this. Even if their numbers are right it took them more than a year to bill you.........I'd need at least three years to pay the shortfall if I paid it at all.

2. My position would be, as I'm sure your position is, you got a bill and in good faith paid it and have considered the matter closed since the moment they accepted payment per their terms and bill.

3. I'm sure there is fine print in the contract that they will say allows them to bill underages more or less forever. I'd want to see proof that they are refunding overages as well.

4. At the worst my position would likely be to make a 15% cash offer on the new charge to make this go away and remember who these jokers are and run them down privately forever.

We contacted them when we received the bill, and told them that they would need to send some justification for this additional billing in writing. We have yet to hear anything.

We'd never use them again or recommend them to anybody.

This whole thing just seems so questionable. There has got to be a time limit for this. Could a clinic come back to you after five years and request additional payment? What if we had moved? This type of thing could mess up your credit.

I appreciate your comments.

[derekv]

Under Texas civil statutes (CPRC Ch. 146), a health care provider must “bill a patient or other responsible person for services provided to the patient not later than the first day of the 11th month after the date the services are provided.” And that’s the longest they can wait to bill. In some cases they must bill even sooner, by “the date required under any contract between the health care service provider and the issuer of the health benefit plan.”

[MurphyPl1]

If they are billing for the same service would that mean it goes from the original bill?

[CieloIn20]

Originally Posted by derekv

Under Texas civil statutes (CPRC Ch. 146), a health care provider must “bill a patient or other responsible person for services provided to the patient not later than the first day of the 11th month after the date the services are provided.” And that’s the longest they can wait to bill. In some cases they must bill even sooner, by “the date required under any contract between the health care service provider and the issuer of the health benefit plan.”

Thank you!

[BigDGeek]

Originally Posted by derekv

Under Texas civil statutes (CPRC Ch. 146), a health care provider must “bill a patient or other responsible person for services provided to the patient not later than the first day of the 11th month after the date the services are provided.” And that’s the longest they can wait to bill. In some cases they must bill even sooner, by “the date required under any contract between the health care service provider and the issuer of the health benefit plan.”

I told a doctor to pound sand when they sent me a bill for $500 after a year had passed since my last appointment. Her office's rationale was they'd tried "multiple times" to get my insurance carrier to pay before billing me the balance.


They didn't like being told to pound sand and sent the matter to collections.


Needless to say I didn't pay the bill and it isn't on my credit report.