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Old 02-09-2015, 08:11 AM
 
Location: Montreal
837 posts, read 1,256,696 times
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If the Southwest (namely: California, Arizona, New Mexico, Texas, etc.) and Florida were both Spanish-ruled before being incorporated into the United States, why does the SW mostly have "San" or "Santa" (e.g. San Francisco, Santa Barbara, Santa Fe, San Antonio) where Florida mostly has "St." (e.g. St. Augustine, the St. Johns River - both of which were named during Florida's Spanish era)?
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Old 02-09-2015, 09:30 AM
 
Location: Victoria TX
42,554 posts, read 86,992,173 times
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The St. names in Florida were originally San Agustin, San Marcos, etc., until the US acquisition, when they were changed to anglicized forms in about 1821.

That did not happen in California, presumably because the California sites were well-established Catholic missions, rather than just Spanish military outpost abandoned by their previous occupantss. The Spanish cultural influence in California remained intact after the territory came under the jurisdiction of the United States.
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Old 02-09-2015, 09:35 AM
 
Location: The Springs
1,778 posts, read 2,887,037 times
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^^^^^^

Correct.
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Old 02-09-2015, 11:05 AM
 
Location: Buena Park, Orange County, California
1,424 posts, read 2,489,057 times
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Refreshing. City-Data...still teaching me new things, and not just race mongering. Love it. Thanks for that jtur88.
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Old 02-16-2015, 04:53 PM
 
3,804 posts, read 6,173,875 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by jtur88 View Post
The St. names in Florida were originally San Agustin, San Marcos, etc., until the US acquisition, when they were changed to anglicized forms in about 1821.

That did not happen in California, presumably because the California sites were well-established Catholic missions, rather than just Spanish military outpost abandoned by their previous occupantss. The Spanish cultural influence in California remained intact after the territory came under the jurisdiction of the United States.
I don't know. Most missions weren't that big, and outside Albuquerque that land was mostly devoid of European settlement of any size.

I have heard that a lot of tons and developers in California in the 20th century adopted made up Spanish names for their towns or developments to seem cooler.

Then you also have oddball places like Las Vegas which has a Spanish name even though Mormons and not Mexicans were the first Europeans to settle the area.
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Old 02-16-2015, 06:24 PM
 
Location: Dayton OH
5,765 posts, read 11,376,630 times
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Many towns / cities in the southwestern US adopted the names of the Spanish or Mexican Land Grants where they were located. The Spanish or Mexican Land Grants consisted of large ranches that became well known in most areas, and when a town was established within the boundary or near the boundary of the land grant, it was logical to name the town after the name of the land grant.

In my area, Orange County, CA there was one large Spanish Mission founded in the 1700s, San Juan Capistrano. The town which grew around the mission adopted that name, and the town and mission are still there and called San Juan Capistrano. Why would it be called anything else?

Just north of San Juan Capistrano, there were large ranches that in the middle and latter part of the 20th century became suburban towns. The towns adopted Spanish names, but they were not made up names, they have roots dating back 200+ years. The city of Mission Viejo, population almost 100K is named after Rancho Mision Viejo. The city were I work, Rancho Santa Margarita, is named after Rancho Santa Margarita Y Las Flores, also a land grant from the 1800s. Countless other city, town and geographical names (in Spanish language) have historical significance, and I don't know of any in my area that were invented by land developers without a link to historical significance.
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Old 02-17-2015, 12:45 AM
 
Location: Westminster/Huntington Beach, CA
1,780 posts, read 1,762,488 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by recycled View Post
Many towns / cities in the southwestern US adopted the names of the Spanish or Mexican Land Grants where they were located. The Spanish or Mexican Land Grants consisted of large ranches that became well known in most areas, and when a town was established within the boundary or near the boundary of the land grant, it was logical to name the town after the name of the land grant.

In my area, Orange County, CA there was one large Spanish Mission founded in the 1700s, San Juan Capistrano. The town which grew around the mission adopted that name, and the town and mission are still there and called San Juan Capistrano. Why would it be called anything else?

Just north of San Juan Capistrano, there were large ranches that in the middle and latter part of the 20th century became suburban towns. The towns adopted Spanish names, but they were not made up names, they have roots dating back 200+ years. The city of Mission Viejo, population almost 100K is named after Rancho Mision Viejo. The city were I work, Rancho Santa Margarita, is named after Rancho Santa Margarita Y Las Flores, also a land grant from the 1800s. Countless other city, town and geographical names (in Spanish language) have historical significance, and I don't know of any in my area that were invented by land developers without a link to historical significance.
Yea it's pretty cool. Santa Ana was originally named "Vallejo de Santa Ana", meaning Valley of St. Anne, by Junipero Serra in 1769 during an expedition out of Mexico City. It became Santa Ana when it was incorporated as a city in 1886 by Jose Antonio Yorba. Part of the Ranch he owned is now Yorba Linda, Orange, Tustin, and Costa Mesa today.
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