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Old 04-18-2014, 08:48 AM
 
Location: Paranoid State
13,044 posts, read 13,867,365 times
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About a month ago on CNBC there was a segment regarding ETFs vs. “hand picking individual stocks” where two guest luminaries debated their respective opposing positions. They also had recent $300K Jeopardy! winner Arthur Chu on the segment, and Chu said both of those approaches were far too risky for him. Chu said he invests almost exclusively in (relatively) safe bonds.

One of the guests then said “Arthur! You're so young! You're barely 30 years old! You should be in 100% equities!”

That doesn’t seem right, I thought. 100% equities? Really?

Then I re-read the 15-year-old article “Why Not 100% Equities?” published in the Journal of Portfolio Management (winter 1996) by now-current hedge-fund legend Cliff Asness (a Fama protégé by the way). Asness was still at Goldman Sachs when he published the article.

The long-term annual ROI of equities (stocks) is much higher than the analogous long-term ROI of bonds. The traditional 60/40 portfolio splits the difference. See the following chart, which is 2nd nature to most investors, and is typically used to argue for the superiority of stocks over bonds. Indeed, in only a handful of 10-year timeframes does a 60/40 portfolio outperform a 100/0 portfolio:



In the above chart, the S&P 500 is used for equities, and the Ibbotson total return series for long-term corporate debt.

So, the obvious question is why bother to have any bonds in your portfolio if you are a long-term investor and can tolerate the risk?

Asness goes on to say perhaps the most important lesson of modern finance is that under reasonable assumptions the choices of (1) which risky assets to hold, and (2) how much risk to bear are independent choices. Under some simple assumptions, an investor chooses a portfolio of risky assets to maximize the portfolio's Sharpe ratio. Then, given the maximal Sharpe ratio of the portfolio P, the investor then chooses the proper mixture of P and riskless cash. This mix will vary from investor to investor because of differing tolerances for risk, but the relative weights among risky assets will stay constant. Feasible portfolios that maximize expected return for a given amount of risk are said to be "efficient."

The following table gives the data from 1926 through 1993 (remember, the paper I'm summarizing was published in 1996), restating the conclusion of the 1st chart posted:



Note that the comparison isn't really fair, as the 100% equities portfolio has substantially more variability (risk) in it than the 60/40 portfolio or the 0/100 portfolio.

Constructing a new portfolio makes the comparison more fair. Imagine an investor has already determined that (a) the 60/40 portfolio is the optimal portfolio of risky assets, and (b) the desired amount of risk is the same as a 100% stock portfolio (risk means standard deviation, of course). For a $1 investment, a NEW portfolio can be constructed by purchasing 20.0/12.9= $1.55 of the 60/40 portfolio, financing the extra 55 cents by borrowing.

The following charts restate the former, including this new "levered 60/40" portfolio:






Asness shows that for the exact same amount of risk as a 100% equity portfolio, one can instead have a levered 60/40 equity/bond portfolio that provides a higher compound annual return. Yes, a higher ROI for the same amount of risk. He uses his results to show that even very long term investors (e.g., 100-year investors such as university endowments) probably should not have 100% equities even in light of the historical superiority of equity returns relative to bond returns.

(He's financing the 55 cents of borrowing for each $1 invested by borrowing at whatever the then-current 1 month T-Bill rate is).

From 1926 through 1993, with the same initial investment of $1, the 100% equity portfolio grows to $800 while the levered 60/40 portfolio grows to $1291. Even though a 100% bond portfolio grows to only $40, using bonds in conjunction with stocks and leverage leads to an investment that grows to $1291. The investor who owns 100% stocks must bear the same risk and receive only $800.

Asness goes on to analyze scenarios with differing ways to look at risk (e.g., worst-case scenarios, etc) plus lots of other cases as well.

*****

I don't know what the data look like since he published his article in 1996 – there have been a ton of bad things the past 15 years such as the collapse of LTCM, the Russian debt crisis, the Asian (financial) Flu, the dot-com collapse, the bursting of the housing bubble, the Great Recession…

But in light of a talking-head on CNBC advising the Jeopardy winner to be in 100% equities, I thought I'd pass this along.
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Old 04-18-2014, 09:08 AM
 
1,402 posts, read 3,501,601 times
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Why does the fact that a portfolio is leveraged make the ROI greater? Leveraging (aka borrowing money to invest) is more about where the money comes from that about what happens to the money once its invested. It would be like expecting that investing money from my paycheck having a different investment performance than investing money I pulled out of an inheritance I received. A dollar is a dollar, whether its earned or borrowed. Am I missing something?

Also that return is from 1926-93, a little shy of 70 years. 70 years is a bit long of a horizon for the average investor. I bet if you shortened that to a more typical 40 years, the difference in return would be almost nonexistent, as compounded returns occur on the back-end of any investing horizon.
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Old 04-18-2014, 10:03 AM
 
Location: East Coast of the United States
27,567 posts, read 28,665,617 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by SportyandMisty View Post
So, the obvious question is why bother to have any bonds in your portfolio if you are a long-term investor and can tolerate the risk?
There is no reason you have to. Personally, I invest my money 100% in stock market indexes because that is what I am comfortable with.

I don't understand bonds well enough. So, I just leave them alone. I'm cool with that.
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Old 04-18-2014, 12:39 PM
 
Location: TX
795 posts, read 1,391,724 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by broadbill View Post
Why does the fact that a portfolio is leveraged make the ROI greater? Leveraging (aka borrowing money to invest) is more about where the money comes from that about what happens to the money once its invested. It would be like expecting that investing money from my paycheck having a different investment performance than investing money I pulled out of an inheritance I received. A dollar is a dollar, whether its earned or borrowed. Am I missing something?
Yes.

You are confusing "ROI" of the investment itself with the individual investor's "ROE" (return on equity).

Your anecdote assumes that an investor would have the same money invested with or without leverage. This is incorrect. Leverage enhances the return on equity because its use results in more total dollars invested per investor equity dollars.

Ergo, leverage will not enhance the individual ROI% of a given investment (you are correct there), but the earnings on borrowed money increase the investor's ROE (what the thread means by "ROI").
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Old 04-18-2014, 01:08 PM
 
1,402 posts, read 3,501,601 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by celcius View Post
Yes.

You are confusing "ROI" of the investment itself with the individual investor's "ROE" (return on equity).

Your anecdote assumes that an investor would have the same money invested with or without leverage. This is incorrect. Leverage enhances the return on equity because its use results in more total dollars invested per investor equity dollars.

Ergo, leverage will not enhance the individual ROI% of a given investment (you are correct there), but the earnings on borrowed money increase the investor's ROE (what the thread means by "ROI").
I see now the charts are indicating compounded return and not ROI. I was reading the OPs use of ROI and picked up on that. So yes, the 60/40level would earn more because you have more invested (duh!) but the ROI would not be different.

So I'm still struggling with the OP's point here...is that you can realize high returns without a 100% equities portfolio? Is the risk of a leveraged portfolio being taken into account here?
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Old 04-18-2014, 02:07 PM
 
24,407 posts, read 26,956,157 times
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I'm 100% in equities... it depends on your investment style and goals.

If I only wanted to check my portfolio a couple times a year then I would not be 100% in equities. However, I check my portfolio virtually everyday during market hours, so I am and will remain 100% in equities.
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Old 04-18-2014, 02:58 PM
 
Location: Warwick, RI
5,481 posts, read 6,305,303 times
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I'm 100% in equities as well - individual stocks in my brokerages accounts, and a good mix of large, mid and small cap and international equity index funds in my IRA and 401K accounts. At 44, I still consider myself to be in accumulation mode, and since my risk tolerance is very high, I'll continue with this strategy until at least my early to mid 50s. At that point I'll start to diversify a bit more and slowly reduce risk and transition my portfolio into more of an income generating mix of investmets. Until then, the most important numbers on my account statements are "number of shares owned" rather than balances.
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Old 04-18-2014, 03:05 PM
 
Location: Paranoid State
13,044 posts, read 13,867,365 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by broadbill View Post
I see now the charts are indicating compounded return and not ROI. I was reading the OPs use of ROI and picked up on that. So yes, the 60/40level would earn more because you have more invested (duh!) but the ROI would not be different.

So I'm still struggling with the OP's point here...is that you can realize high returns without a 100% equities portfolio? Is the risk of a leveraged portfolio being taken into account here?
It is less my point than the Cliff Asness' point (I don't want to imply I'm taking credit for his work -- all I did was read his paper).

The idea of being on the efficient frontier is that for a given level of risk, you are achieving the maximum return (my bad for typing in ROI in the lead-in instead of the more correct ROE). The flip side of that coin is that for a given level or return, you have minimized the risk you incur. That's being on the efficient frontier.

So, Asness shows that for a given level of risk (in this case, a standard deviation of 20% calculated from historical stock prices), you can have a higher level of return in the leveraged 60/40 portfolio than in the 100% equity return.
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Old 04-18-2014, 04:03 PM
 
Location: moved
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Risk is difficult to calculate, because it is regarded as a probability (as must be the case for any prediction), and not a calculation of what already happened (then it's too late). In the real-world, there are two glaring problems: (1) people get emotional and withdraw their investments after protracted sequence of bad return (March 2009, anyone?). (2) it is possible to have several bad years consecutively, late in one's investment career, wiping out a larger number of good years, early in one's career. For these and other reasons, a 100% equity allocation is generally not advisable. The same could be said for leverage. Those who already adequately understand the full implications of leverage presumably don't need advice. Those who could benefit from advice, don't sufficiently understand leverage.
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Old 04-18-2014, 04:12 PM
 
3,978 posts, read 4,577,283 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by BigCityDreamer View Post
I don't understand bonds well enough. So, I just leave them alone. I'm cool with that.
That's the definition of ignorant.
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