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I think Phyllis Schafly said the same exact thing.
You know, the American woman who opposed the feminist movement.
That would be the movement that led to the AMERICAN laws that said wives could not refuse sex to their husbands being overturned.
I know, it's a pesky little thing. I think Germany's laws still say that a woman cannot say no to her husband, that he has the right to force himself upon her. And they didn't change Germany's laws to reflect Sharia law. Germany's laws have said this for centuries. As did British laws. French laws. AMERICAN laws, until they started changing those laws in the 1970's. And guess what, in some states you still cannot accuse a husband of RAPE. It's not called RAPE. It's called domestic assault. And in some states even if it's called rape, spousal rape does not get treated the same as other rapes. It's a lesser charge, lesser penalty. Sometimes it doesn't even rise to the status of a sexual crime. In the United States. No Sharia influence at all.
If I am getting the jest of it and I do believe I am. The right for the man to have sex with his wife on demand.
Which Sharia law do you believe the judge based his decision on?
PS: you came in on page 12?
I'm not making fun of you, I'm sure it was just a typo, but I do believe you mean "gist of it". "Jest of it" might have been a Freudian slip. But it was funny as can be, even though this is not a funny topic.
The judge ruled against extending a restraining order. His ruling was overturned. He did not uphold the right of a man to have sex with his wife on demand. So you still have not provided us with the Sharia law that the judge BASED his ruling upon.
Sometimes it doesn't even rise to the status of a sexual crime. In the United States. No Sharia influence at all.
While that may be true, in this particular NJ case, the judge DID in fact refer to the man's belief that he was entitled to sex whenever he wanted, even without his wife's consent. Clearly based on Islamic Sharia Law that does not recognize forced marital sex as rape.
While that may be true, in this particular NJ case, the judge DID in fact refer to the man's belief that he was entitled to sex whenever he wanted, even without his wife's consent. Clearly based on Islamic Sharia Law that does not recognize forced marital sex as rape.
The judge referred to the man's belief. The judge didn't refer to Sharia Law. He referred to the man's belief. This particular man was Muslim. But if he'd been German he might have believed the exact same thing. And the judge might have referred to the man's belief in exactly the same way. And do try to remember that some states (American states) do not recognize forced marital sex as rape. They call it domestic assault.
Good for Oklahoma for passing this. Of course CAIR will challenge it...that's their purpose.
Someone a few pages back commented that there probably weren't many Muslims in Oklahoma. Why does that make a difference? I'm in Nebraska and I'm sure most people don't think we have many illegals. We recently passed a law not to provide free prenatal care to welfare recipients and of the 1600 people this took off the roles, 860 were illegal. When over half are illegal it's a problem.
Hopefully Oklahoma will send a message and avoid a future problem.
The judge referred to the man's belief. The judge didn't refer to Sharia Law. He referred to the man's belief. This particular man was Muslim. But if he'd been German he might have believed the exact same thing. And the judge might have referred to the man's belief in exactly the same way. And do try to remember that some states (American states) do not recognize forced marital sex as rape. They call it domestic assault.
How do you think this defense would fly for an American? As an attorney would you rely on it as a defense? As a client would you feel confident with an attorney that used this defense?
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