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First of all, in order for the rich to have become rich, they either 1) stole their riches by pillaging and robbing; or 2) depended on the poor as consumers to use whatever service or product the person who became rich had in the first place.
So it seems like the rich wouldn't be rich had it not been via the poor.
First of all, in order for the rich to have become rich, they either 1) stole their riches by pillaging and robbing; or 2) depended on the poor as consumers to use whatever service or product the person who became rich had in the first place.
So it seems like the rich wouldn't be rich had it not been via the poor.
Maybe more poor people should start their own businesses.
That way maybe at least their children will NOT be poor.
Why? Were they just being nice? Why did the business owner get paid more?
You're asking WHY employees get paid less than the person that runs the business? We can go back and forth on that all day. The fact of the matter remains that rich people wouldn't be where they are if they hadn't depended on consumers and labor in order to have made their profits, much of which comes from the poor in comparison to the rich. So without "the poor," "the rich" would be worse-off.
You're asking WHY employees get paid less than the person that runs the business? We can go back and forth on that all day. The fact of the matter remains that rich people wouldn't be where they are if they hadn't depended on consumers and labor in order to have made their profits, much of which comes from the poor in comparison to the rich.
But we're talking about philanthropy here, you can't bring in a situation where someone agrees to work for a certain amount and use that to counter it.
Why are business owners richer than their employees?
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