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Originally Posted by Rush99
if the constitution protected ownership of slaves what do you mean it didn't take sides?
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Look, I think we are just fighting over words and their definition. The word protect generally means "to keep from being damaged" or "to help".
The question is, did the constitution help the the institution of slavery? Did the constitution keep the institution of slavery from being damaged?
In my opinion, if the constitution was helping slavery. Then it would have put in place protections to make sure slavery not only survived, but also spread. The truth is that, before the constitution was even drafted, the Northwest ordinance banned slavery from the Northwest territories. Restrictions on slave-trading were increased to their maximum level allowed in the constitution. And the day the slave-trade could be abolished, it was abolished by Thomas Jefferson. Long before the Civil War, slavery was dying across the country. And slavery would have died with or without the Civil War, and with or without an amendment to the constitution.
If you look at history, you'll realize that if the constitution supposedly was designed to "help slavery", it did a really terrible job.
In my view of history, I think the constitution intentionally created a system which everyone knew would be antagonistic towards slavery in the future. I think most of the framers ultimately wanted to abolish slavery, but the political conditions at the time simply wouldn't allow it. So the constitution was designed in a way to allow them to "kick the can down the road". But which everyone knew to some extent what the future would hold.
I mean, for what other purpose is the specific 20-year prohibition of the interference of the slave trade? If the constitution really "protected" slavery. Why would it only prevent interference for 20 years? Why not forever? If the constitution really was intended to "help" slavery. Wouldn't it have looked a lot more like the confederate constitution?
Quote:
Originally Posted by caribny
I was of the impression that the vast majority of the states still had slavery during this early post independence era.
This was clearly not a slave vs., nonslave state issue.
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Look, if slavery controlled Congress in 1787. Then why was slavery banned from all of the states which were to be formed by the Northwest ordinance? The truth is that slavery was highly unpopular in many states, long before it was abolished.
What people don't understand is that, abolishing slavery isn't as simple as just passing a law and then suddenly everything is great. Slaves were usually uneducated and unskilled. To free the slaves, who had no money, no skills, and no education into a world where even free men were struggling to find even basic needs like clothing, food, water, and employment. Would have been a recipe for disaster.
Most programs to abolish slavery freed children of slaves, rather than all slaves. Then they would create programs to educate those children and teach them skills, so they would be able to take care of themselves.
The 13th amendment didn't suddenly elevate the quality of life of blacks. To a very large extent, the abolition of slavery after the Civil War made conditions for most blacks worse. This was largely offset by things like the freedmen's bureau and other organizations which were created to provide things like food, clothing, shelter, and jobs for newly freed blacks. As well as teach blacks even basic skills, like how to read and write. Most freed blacks would then become sharecroppers(which is almost like feudalism), because that was all they knew.
Freedmen's Bureau - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
The point is, if you understand history. You'll realize that most of the founding fathers were eager to abolish slavery. But it was simply impossible to abolish slavery in 1776 or 1787.
Trust me, if there was no Georgia or South Carolina in 1787, slavery would have been phased out by 1800 at the latest.