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Old 09-03-2008, 04:14 PM
 
Location: San Antonio
944 posts, read 3,062,427 times
Reputation: 266

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I just saw a listing for a house and it says that the seller is exempt from disclosure. The house also costs a LOT less than that person paid for it a very short time ago. (Keep in mind that the prices there had flattened, not fallen at all.) They are listing at 60% of what they paid. What are the possible reasons for this? I love real estate mysteries

Last edited by hello13685; 09-03-2008 at 04:24 PM..
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Old 09-03-2008, 04:19 PM
 
Location: Richmond, VA
2,309 posts, read 2,312,138 times
Reputation: 974
don't know why they are exempt, but if they are selling for a lot less it sounds like a short sale. Or has the real estate market adjusted in that area and that is just the going rate of homes there now?
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Old 09-03-2008, 04:19 PM
 
Location: Virginia Beach, VA
2,124 posts, read 8,839,562 times
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Reasons for for being exempt:

If it is owned by a bank. they cannot disclose as they do not know anything about the property.

If it is a brand new house and no one lived in it before (in VA. they are exempt from disclosure), because no one has lived there to disclose.

And in some estate cases, where you are getting a special deed... again, I can't disclose something I don't know if I didn't live there.

Does that help? : )

Shelly

P.S. with what you are describing, I am betting it is a bank owned home.
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Old 09-03-2008, 04:27 PM
 
Location: San Antonio
944 posts, read 3,062,427 times
Reputation: 266
Thanks. Seems to be bank owned, but there is a listing agent. Do banks use listing agents? (Yes, I'm ignorant of this
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Old 09-03-2008, 04:30 PM
 
1,305 posts, read 2,753,241 times
Reputation: 238
yup.
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Old 09-03-2008, 05:16 PM
 
Location: Virginia Beach, VA
2,124 posts, read 8,839,562 times
Reputation: 818
Hello, yes banks use agents. They want to get the house sold as quickly as possible, so they use the experts in the market. HOWEVER, then they try to reduce commissions and all kinds of other things. But that is another kettle of fish.

Shelly
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Old 09-03-2008, 07:33 PM
 
Location: DFW
40,952 posts, read 49,155,879 times
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An owner that has acquired a home and has never lived in the house would be exempt from filling out a disclosure.

This would be basically banks, lenders, trusts, inherited homes due to death, some relocation companies. If you don't know a history of a home there is no ability to disclose.

Many times family members of an inherited home will fill out a disclosure for what they do know such as a death on the property.
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Old 09-03-2008, 08:06 PM
 
Location: Cary, NC
43,266 posts, read 77,043,330 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Rakin View Post

An owner that has acquired a home and has never lived in the house would be exempt from filling out a disclosure.

This would be basically banks, lenders, trusts, inherited homes due to death, some relocation companies. If you don't know a history of a home there is no ability to disclose.

Many times family members of an inherited home will fill out a disclosure for what they do know such as a death on the property.
Another regional difference exposed by CityData!

That person would complete a disclosure form in North Carolina.
They would have the opportunity to mark the selection, "No Representation."
Which means just what it says, that the Seller is making No Representation" about the item.
They might make a note as to never living there to clarify why there is no representation, but they will do the form.

New Construction and bank-owned foreclosures are exempt from disclosures here, as in other areas.
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