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Is it possible that such a large tenet of Christianity is based on a mistranslation? Is it that far-fetched to assume that Mary and Joseph (who I think were married) simply had sex and she became pregnant with a child who would go on to become a messiah?
Is it possible that such a large tenet of Christianity is based on a mistranslation? Is it that far-fetched to assume that Mary and Joseph (who I think were married) simply had sex and she became pregnant with a child who would go on to become a messiah?
Totally agree with this as Mary and Jesus have both said so in channeled messages.
And Maryam (Mary), the daughter of 'Imran who guarded her chastity. And We breathed into (the sleeve of her shirt or her garment) through Our Ruh [i.e. Jibril (Gabriel) ], and she testified to the truth of the Words of her Lord [i.e. believed in the Words of Allah: "Be!" - and he was; that is 'Îsa (Jesus), son of Maryam (Mary) as a Messenger of Allah], and (also believed in) His Scriptures, and she was of the Qanitun (i.e. obedient to Allah) .66:12
Is it possible that such a large tenet of Christianity is based on a mistranslation? Is it that far-fetched to assume that Mary and Joseph (who I think were married) simply had sex and she became pregnant with a child who would go on to become a messiah?
Well according to the bible they were not married at the time of her conception.....which of course doesnt prove she was a virgin.
Is it possible that such a large tenet of Christianity is based on a mistranslation? Is it that far-fetched to assume that Mary and Joseph (who I think were married) simply had sex and she became pregnant with a child who would go on to become a messiah?
Well, now, after having the two identical experiences that I had as a young child, I would have to say, God can do what ever He wants. How ever He wants. There is no nothing that God can't achieve. Nothing.
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Is it possible that such a large tenet of Christianity is based on a mistranslation? Is it that far-fetched to assume that Mary and Joseph (who I think were married) simply had sex and she became pregnant with a child who would go on to become a messiah?
I is possible, nay, likely, that much of what modern churches teach is based on mistranslations. What is more is that these are mistranslations of 2nd an 3rd hand hearsay and fables.
Is it possible that such a large tenet of Christianity is based on a mistranslation? Is it that far-fetched to assume that Mary and Joseph (who I think were married) simply had sex and she became pregnant with a child who would go on to become a messiah?
Neither the word Alma or the word Bethula exclusively means virgin or a young married woman.
Critics like to say that Bethula exclusively means 'virgin', but that's not true. In Joel 1:8 'Wail like a virgin girded with sackcloth for the bridegroom of her youth', the word 'Bethula' is incorrectly translated 'virgin'. Bethula here refers to a young married or sexually active woman.
'Alma' in the Old Testament is mostly used to refer to a virgin.
Gen 24:43 is the account of Abraham's servant looking for a wife for Isaac. Rebekah was the woman that God intended for Isaac. Rebekah was a virgin.
In Exodus 2:8 the word almah is used for Miriam, who is Mose's sister. She is a young virgin.
Psalms 68:25 mentions young girls playing timbrels. Alma is used.
Solomon 6:8 uses the word alma to contrast virgins (maidens), with queens and concubines.
To look at the virgin birth of Jesus Christ from another perspective, research The Coniah Curse of Jeremiah 22:24-30. Google 'The Coniah Curse'. Here's a link: The Curse of Coniah (http://www.glimpsesofgrace.org/html/Coniah.html - broken link)
Futhermore, the virgin birth was prophecied in Genesis 3:15 'And I will put enmity Between your seed and her seed: He shall bruise you on the head, and you shall bruise him on the heel.' 'Her seed' refers to the virgin birth. A reference to Mary's seed. Not Josephs seed. Additionally, the reference to bruising is referring to Christ the Messiah crushing Satans head in the sense of ultimately sealing Satans fate, and that Satan would bruise the Messiah's heel, which is a reference to his death on the cross.
Yes, the word 'Almah' is the word the writers intended to use, and correctly used to refer to the virgin birth of Jesus Christ.
And Maryam (Mary), the daughter of 'Imran who guarded her chastity. And We breathed into (the sleeve of her shirt or her garment) through Our Ruh [i.e. Jibril (Gabriel) ], and she testified to the truth of the Words of her Lord [i.e. believed in the Words of Allah: "Be!" - and he was; that is 'Îsa (Jesus), son of Maryam (Mary) as a Messenger of Allah], and (also believed in) His Scriptures, and she was of the Qanitun (i.e. obedient to Allah) .66:12
Well, I think that beats even Rev.111's contribution.
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