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Old 08-16-2010, 04:58 PM
 
7,374 posts, read 8,781,149 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by sciotamicks View Post
Aha! You question the context by retranslating the word. The meaning is still there, whether it is not, never, nay, naught, etc.

Not have forgiveness, means just that, NO FORGIVENESS.
You are the one glossing dear brother, not us.

You keep saying Christ said they would not be forgiven. But that is not what Christ said, he said they would "have not forgiveness in the age". You all keep omitting "in the age" and then you turn around and say i am the one omitting. This is really funny.
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Old 08-16-2010, 04:58 PM
 
Location: Seattle, Wa
5,303 posts, read 6,449,724 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by herefornow View Post
Yes, it does!!

Why would the KJV translate "grave" to "hell," which is a loaded word and NEVER carried the meaning of the Greek mythological underworld? The translators finally put "grave" in some of the footnotes. Nice of 'em, huh? The Bible was butchered, mistranslated, misinterpreted, and abused by very nasty men, sciotamicks. You MUST have figured this out by now!

So now, Hades and Hell are mythological? LOL...you are stretching for things that aren't there. Do yo understand what Abraham's bosom is?
Do you understand what the burning flame and everlasting contempt is?

Your charges against the translators have once again showed me, and many others, that your interpretation is completely unfamilliar with the Bible, the message, and the purpose of the gospel.

Readers of the forum, when someone questions the word of God and the holy spirit moving men in its translations for Him and His purpose, that has grown from a mere few thousand to 1.9 Billion believers globally, throw out their philosophy, immediately.
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Old 08-16-2010, 05:02 PM
 
Location: Seattle, Wa
5,303 posts, read 6,449,724 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Ironmaw1776 View Post
You keep saying Christ said they would not be forgiven. But that is not what Christ said, he said they would "not be forgiven in the age". You all keep omitting "in the age" and then you turn around and say i am the one omitting. This is really funny.
I already took care of that. Same thread...post #86.

https://www.city-data.com/forum/chris...l#post15499466


Doesn't mean age during as universalism loves to promote.
It means...eternally.
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Old 08-16-2010, 05:02 PM
 
5,925 posts, read 6,963,131 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Ironmaw1776 View Post
You keep saying Christ said they would not be forgiven. But that is not what Christ said, he said they would "have not forgiveness in the age". You all keep omitting "in the age" and then you turn around and say i am the one omitting. This is really funny.

You're not supposed to listen or pay attention to what Christ said that will blind you from hearing sciotamicks word.
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Old 08-16-2010, 05:11 PM
 
Location: Florida
76,971 posts, read 47,790,400 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by sciotamicks View Post
One cannot change the meaning of the verse....hence context as you have pointed out. Whenever someones tells me that the translators are incorrect and the truth is withheld, they are immediately suspect in my opinion. I, first and foremost, deny that a knowledge of the original language is necessary to understand the truth of God's word. What God is explaining to us in his word is able to be truthfully expressed and easily understood in any language by any normally intelligent person, after they have believed the gospel that they have heard preached to them and they have recieved the gift of the Holy Spirit. Until then, the only thing a person can hear is the gospel of Jesus the Christ and him crucified for our sin, which is our administration and ministry to teach and preach.

Translation from the Hebrew and Greek into the English language, which by necessity translates into the idiom of that language so that it is readable by the natives in that language. Greek idiom and syntax and English idiom and syntax are not the same. Greek grammar and English grammar are not the same. Each language has its own particular syntax. Translating from one language to another requires the translators to use these additional idiomatic words and syntactical changes throughout the entire scriptures, both Hebrew and Greek, but never does it falsify the scripture, or denies Christ and makes the gospel of Christ of none effect, as UR proposes from their continual removal of context.
When God wanted to make something clear, he made is crystal clear with no room for error. See in Matthew he didn't just say there is no forgiveness, he added this: "anyone who speaks against the Holy Spirit will not be forgiven, either in this age or in the age to come. "

There is no way to mistranslate it: such sin will not be forgiven, EVER.
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Old 08-16-2010, 05:18 PM
 
Location: Seattle, Wa
5,303 posts, read 6,449,724 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Finn_Jarber View Post
When God wanted to make something clear, he made is crystal clear with no room for error. See in Matthew he didn't just say there is no forgiveness, he added this: "anyone who speaks against the Holy Spirit will not be forgiven, either in this age or in the age to come. "

There is no way to mistranslate it: such sin will not be forgiven, EVER.
Exactly, so clear a kid would get it, and anyone else with a 1st grade level in any language.
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Old 08-16-2010, 05:20 PM
 
Location: arizona ... most of the time
11,825 posts, read 12,528,038 times
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Ironmaw1776,
Can you for me pick out the primary preposition properly meaning superimposition as a relation of distribution

πιστεύω
εἰς υἱός ἔχω αἰώνιος ζωή ἀπειθέω υἱός ὀπτάνομαι, ζωή ὀργή θεός μένω ἐπί



How about this easier question: Can you tell us which greek word is the first a (middle voice) prolonged form of the second (primary) which is used for it in certain tenses; and both as alternates of ὁράω

πιστεύω εἰς υἱός ἔχω αἰώνιος ζωή ἀπειθέω υἱός ὀπτάνομαι, ζωή ὀργή θεός μένω ἐπί

This really would help to confirm your expertize about the greek

Last edited by twin.spin; 08-16-2010 at 05:30 PM..
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Old 08-16-2010, 05:22 PM
 
7,374 posts, read 8,781,149 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Finn_Jarber View Post
When God wanted to make something clear, he made is crystal clear with no room for error. See in Matthew he didn't just say there is no forgiveness, he added this: "anyone who speaks against the Holy Spirit will not be forgiven, either in this age or in the age to come. "

There is no way to mistranslate it: such sin will not be forgiven, EVER.

LOL, "this age" referred to the age that they were living in at that time, and "the age to come" is the age we are in now ... But there are still at least 3 ages left before God is all in all. This age or in the age to come also does not be never. That is like me saying, "i wont eat today or tomorrow", and then someone hears me and says that i said that I would never eat again. Silliness gone to seed ...

Israel believed Christ was a false messiah and that he had an evil spirit. So they were judged in that age, in 70 AD, and they still are cut off, meaning they have not been forgiven yet in this age either, but they will be after this age. As it is written, all Israel will be saved, because though they rejected Christ and became enemies of the gospel for the sake of believers(gentiles), they are beloved of the father as touching the election.
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Old 08-16-2010, 05:25 PM
 
Location: Seattle, Washington
8,435 posts, read 10,556,510 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Finn_Jarber View Post
When God wanted to make something clear, he made is crystal clear with no room for error. See in Matthew he didn't just say there is no forgiveness, he added this: "anyone who speaks against the Holy Spirit will not be forgiven, either in this age or in the age to come. "

There is no way to mistranslate it: such sin will not be forgiven, EVER.
Funny you say that....

It doesn't say anything about the age before "this age" or the age after "the age to come" yet you assume it does....

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Old 08-16-2010, 05:33 PM
 
Location: Seattle, Washington
8,435 posts, read 10,556,510 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by twin.spin View Post
Can you for me pick out the primary preposition properly meaning superimposition as a relation of distribution

πιστεύω
εἰς υἱός ἔχω αἰώνιος ζωή ἀπειθέω υἱός ὀπτάνομαι, ζωή ὀργή θεός μένω ἐπί
Strongs #1909 epi ἐπί
a primary preposition; properly, meaning superimposition (of time, place, order, etc.), as a relation of distribution (with the genitive case), i.e. over, upon, etc.; of rest (with the dative case) at, on, etc.; of direction (with the accusative case) towards, upon, etc.:--about (the times), above, after, against, among, as long as (touching), at, beside, X have charge of, (be-, (where-))fore, in (a place, as much as, the time of, -to), (because) of, (up-)on (behalf of), over, (by, for) the space of, through(-out), (un-)to(-ward), with. In compounds it retains essentially the same import, at, upon, etc. (literally or figuratively).

Read more: Strongs's #1909: epi :: Greek/Hebrew Definitions :: Bible Tools




Quote:
How about this easier question: Can you tell us which greek word is the first a (middle voice) prolonged form of the second (primary) which is used for it in certain tenses; and both as alternates of ὁράω

πιστεύω εἰς υἱός ἔχω αἰώνιος ζωή ἀπειθέω υἱός ὀπτάνομαι, ζωή ὀργή θεός μένω ἐπί
ὀπτάνομαι

???

Not sure why you need this info but it sounds as if I should win a prize because you seem to already know the answer...

I am no greek scholar but I find myself pretty good with english.... and yet I still can't seem to figure out what you are trying to say with this post.
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