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As a matter of fact, both Jacob and Abraham were law breakers ... Abraham's married his half sister(his fathers daughter) and Jacob married his 1st wife's sister, both relationships which are forbidden by the law.
When Abraham and Jacob were alive there was not a lot of written laws in place,..... Like Abraham lived some four hundred years before Moses and the laws that he established, same with Jacob who lived some three hundred and fifty years before Moses and his Mosaic laws. so it was perfectly alright to marry any person that they wanted.......
When Abraham and Jacob were alive there was not a lot of written laws in place,..... Like Abraham lived some four hundred years before Moses and the laws that he established, same with Jacob who lived some three hundred and fifty years before Moses and his Mosaic laws. so it was perfectly alright to marry any person that they wanted.......
If you think very carefully about what you just posted....you will see that this is some extremely faulty logic.
When Abraham and Jacob were alive there was not a lot of written laws in place,..... Like Abraham lived some four hundred years before Moses and the laws that he established, same with Jacob who lived some three hundred and fifty years before Moses and his Mosaic laws. so it was perfectly alright to marry any person that they wanted.......
So then i suppose that it was alright that Lots two daughters had sex with their father in the cave so that they could get pregnant as well by the same logic ... And it was alright to murder and cheat and steal commit child sacrifice, have massive pagan orgies, worship graven images, and do all the other things that the law prohibits before the law was written. There must not have been any such thing as sin before the law was given to Moses if what you say is true.
To bad we were not all born before the law was given, then no one would have to worry about sin ...
So then i suppose that it was alright that Lots two daughters had sex with their father in the cave so that they could get pregnant as well by the same logic ... And it was alright to murder and cheat and steal commit child sacrifice, have massive pagan orgies, worship graven images, and do all the other things that the law prohibits before the law was written. There must not have been any such thing as sin before the law was given to Moses if what you say is true.
To bad we were not all born before the law was given, then no one would have to worry about sin ...
Hi (again!)!
Your OP brings up a valid question.
In Romans 5, we read that sin is not imputed when there is no law.
I think that regardless of the good or evil that they did, the important point is that God intentionally put man into sin. And since I believe that God is just, I would also add that He did this in order to put all men in Christ and Life.
So man has been subject to sin, not because he wanted it, but because God made him that way. For a Purpose. A Holy Purpose, I would say..
Rom 5:20
The law was added so that the trespass might increase. But where sin increased, grace increased all the more,
The verse above says so much in so few words. It really is amazing how many different ways it applies to our understanding of the purpose of God in subjecting his creation to futility.
The reason why God gave the law was not so that man might seek to be justified by the law in the sight of God.
The law was given so that sin and disobedience would increase throughout the world. The law "arouses sinful passions"(Rom 7:5), it does not arouse our desire to be obedient.
Why did God give the law in order to cause sin and disobedience to increase? Why did God give the law in order to arouse the sinful passions in humanity?
Rom 11:32
For God has bound all men over to disobedience so that he may have mercy on them all.
And again ...
Rom 8:20
Against its will, all creation was subjected to God's curse. But with eager hope
Hope of what?
Rom 5:21
so that, just as sin reigned in death, so also grace might reign through righteousness to bring eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord.
Because ...
2Cr 4:15
For all things are for your sakes, so that the grace which is spreading to more and more people may cause the giving of thanks to abound to the glory of God.
It is the glory of God to be the savior of the world ... So God bound the world and all men therein to disobedience, that they should increase in trespasses, for were sin abounds, grace does much more abound to the glory of God.
All of the patriarchs were certainly less than perfect people. Would you buy a used car from Jacob?
The great witness of the patriarchs is not their own righteousness, for which they were sorely lacking, but the great mercy (and it has to be said: sense of humor) of a loving God who can work His will in the lives of such imperfect human beings.
As a matter of fact, both Jacob and Abraham were law breakers ... Abraham's married his half sister(his fathers daughter) and Jacob married his 1st wife's sister, both relationships which are forbidden by the law.
The Law did not come until after that...the Levitical Laws...
If you think very carefully about what you just posted....you will see that this is some extremely faulty logic.
no it is not...where there is no law there is no sin...law brought sin...
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