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Old 04-07-2013, 11:03 AM
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Matthew 4:4 View Post
Same throne? How many thrones are mentioned at Revelation 3 v 21 ?________

'me and my throne' besides 'my Father and His throne' .

Who sits at God's right hand?

Who is the God of the resurrected heavenly Jesus mentioned at Rev. 3 v 12 ?

Doesn't Jesus claim to be the beginning of the creation by God at Rev. 3 v 14 ?
God had No beginning according to Psalm 90 v 2.
Only God was before the beginning.
Jesus was Not before the beginning as God was before the beginning.

Even the resurrected heavenly Jesus decades after being in heaven still considers himself to be the Son of God according to Rev. 2 v 18.
REV 3:14 "And unto the angel of the Church of the Laodiceans write; These things says the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation of God;"

All things were begun through Christ/The Word, not that He has a beginning He is the Word gone forth from the Father's thoughts. JN 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He put His thoughts into action/creatively by His Word/Christ. The Word has always been with the Father in living thought. And His Word unlike ours is Living, therefor a person/Christ and relates back to the Father as distinct person as we are but He in fullness without measure but we in part with measure. But for the trinity nature of God, man would not exist. Christ brings us back into a right relationship with God as part of the trinity.

Yes, and Christ is still the Son by whom all things are because He is the Word by which all creation will answer to. We will answer to the Word spoken and recorded for the world to know. Words are what you speak after you have thought them. They are the expression of who you are internally. The difference of coarse is that Gods Word/Christ can actually create.

Christ is God manifest in the external/His body as The Son and all physical creation but within The Son is His Spirit also known as "the fullness of the Godhead in bodily form". That is to say, all that we can know of God while in our own bodies is found only in Christ who made known what it is to be a man/women of God.

Last edited by garya123; 04-07-2013 at 11:19 AM..
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Old 04-07-2013, 02:22 PM
 
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The same Greek grammar rule applies at both John 1 v 1 and as at Acts 28 v 6 B.

There is No letter 'a' at John 1 v 1, but at Acts 28 v 6 B there is the letter 'a' inserted before the word god.

Jesus was definitely ' of ' God according to John 10 v 33 because as Revelation 3 v 14 says Jesus is the beginning of the creation by God.

That does not mean Jesus was before the beginning as God was before the beginning.- Psalm 90 v 2

Jesus is ' Mighty God ' as Isaiah [ 9 v 6 ] states but ' Not Almighty God '.

God and Jesus are always referred to in the: masculine.
God's spirit [ Psalm 104 v 30 ], on the other hand, is sometimes referred to in the neuter such as at Numbers 11 vs 16,17,25
Also, in English grammar rules a neuter can be masculine or feminine such as calling a neuter ship or boat as: 'she '.
That does not make the ship or boat a person but remains like God's spirit as a neuter 'it'.
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Old 04-07-2013, 02:28 PM
 
Location: Northern Wisconsin
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Check the Nicene and Athanasian creeds, also known as the Ecumenical Creeds. Father is God , the Son is God and the Holy Spirit is God, and yet there are not three Gods, but one God. This is what the Bible teaches and has been accepted Christian doctrine by most of the Christians in the world for over 1500 years. Anything else is of the devil.
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Old 04-07-2013, 02:32 PM
 
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No, the Nicene / Athanasian creeds is Not what the Bible teaches. They are customs or traditions of men outside of Scripture.
-Mark 7 vs 1-7, 13; Matthew 15 v 9
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