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Old 07-06-2014, 08:44 AM
 
Location: US
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Quote:
Originally Posted by arleigh View Post
The Jews killed Jesus because Jesus was showing that He was equal to God ,and that is what they objected to.
Read the gospels , For what is says, not for just what you want.
No, the Romans killed him...What you stated is anti-semitic...
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Old 07-06-2014, 10:06 AM
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by 101c View Post
No, JESUS, who is the only GOD, and he taught his disciples, and the apostle, and many more. I just decided to follow the truth, (smile).


truth= John 20:17, Rev 3:12---2Cor 1:3, 1Cor 8:6,,1Cor 15:24-28---Rev 1:6---Jesus, paul, and John all teach Jesus has a God--his Father. So your statement is incorrect.
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Old 07-06-2014, 10:13 AM
 
Location: New England
37,340 posts, read 28,362,253 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Richard1965 View Post
No, the Romans killed him...What you stated is anti-semitic...
I disagree Richard. You(the jews)by the hand of lawless men did crucify and slay: Acts 2:23. Jesus himself said they would could kill him
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Old 07-06-2014, 11:07 AM
 
Location: On the brink of WWIII
21,088 posts, read 29,279,590 times
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If God knows what we are in need of before we ask (Matthew 6:8) then is GOD not with us always? (Matthew 28:20 & Psalms 73:23)

Did Jesus tell the jailer that he needed YEARS of study when asked WHAT MUST I DO TO BE SAVED? Acts 16:29-31)

Sometimes I wonder if we don't spend so much time trying and worrying if we will be found worthy of God's grace and not enough time if we are living out God's grace?>
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Old 07-06-2014, 11:10 AM
 
Location: On the brink of WWIII
21,088 posts, read 29,279,590 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by pcamps View Post
I disagree Richard. You(the jews)by the hand of lawless men did crucify and slay: Acts 2:23. Jesus himself said they would could kill him
The option to put Christ to death rested with the Romans. They could have set Jesus free but chose to placate the Jewish leaders.
And taken this to its logical conclusion, God allowed Jesus to die. Ultimately God alone had the ability to stop the Crucifixion of His Son.

And taken even further, NO LIVING PERSON TODAY IS RESPONSIBLE FOR THE CRUCIFIXION.

Parents are not to be put to death for their children, nor children put to death for their parents; each will die for their own sin.
(Deuteronomy 24:16)

But wait, what does GOD really mean, when He said..


maintaining love to thousands, and forgiving wickedness, rebellion and sin. Yet he does not leave the guilty unpunished; he punishes the children and their children for the sin of the parents to the third and fourth generation." (Exodus 34:7)


Then God changes His mind again and says...
Yet he did not put their children to death, but acted in accordance with what is written in the Law, in the Book of Moses, where the LORD commanded: "Parents shall not be put to death for their children, nor children be put to death for their parents; each will die for their own sin." (2 Chronicles 25:4) and (2 Kings 14:16)

What does God mean? Which is the case? Do we die for our parents sins or not?

Again, Jesus did tell us he is the FULFILLMENT of the LAWS.

"Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. (Matthew 5:17)

Therefore I believe any discussion as to where the "blame" is laid in moot and has only lead to H8 and oppression of other people.

Last edited by zthatzmanz28; 07-06-2014 at 11:24 AM..
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Old 07-06-2014, 11:18 AM
 
Location: New England
37,340 posts, read 28,362,253 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by zthatzmanz28 View Post
The option to put Christ to death rested with the Romans. They could have set Jesus free but chose to placate the Jewish leaders.
So they ( the jews) wanting Christ crucified and then having someone carry it out for them, means they had nothing to do with it ?. They( the jews) did not have to cry crucify him.

My point is the jews according to the scriptures were very much part of his crucifixion.
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Old 07-06-2014, 12:08 PM
 
Location: california
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We have people arguing scriptures here, that have not even actually read the scriptures.
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Old 07-06-2014, 01:11 PM
 
6,366 posts, read 2,929,840 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by zthatzmanz28 View Post
If God knows what we are in need of before we ask (Matthew 6:8) then is GOD not with us always? (Matthew 28:20 & Psalms 73:23)

Did Jesus tell the jailer that he needed YEARS of study when asked WHAT MUST I DO TO BE SAVED? Acts 16:29-31)

Sometimes I wonder if we don't spend so much time trying and worrying if we will be found worthy of God's grace and not enough time if we are living out God's grace?>


1) But who is he really with--25 million die from starvation yearly--he is not with them--a single teaching from Jesus would have prevented every one of those deaths--why weren't they taught a single important teaching which would have spared 25 million lives yearly--WHY aren't they being taught??????

2)Acts was Paul speaking, not Jesus. there are more than one Jesus being taught on this earth--which one is correct---it takes years of study to find out. were the ones above in 1)taught the incorrect false Jesus by chance?

3) People think grace is handed on a silver platter--it is not.
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Old 07-06-2014, 02:23 PM
 
Location: Mobile, Al.
3,671 posts, read 2,250,496 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by arleigh View Post
The Jews killed Jesus because Jesus was showing that He was equal to God ,and that is what they objected to.
Read the gospels , For what is says, not for just what you want.
This is very true. since there is only “ONE” God, and to be equal with God, one must be of God in a Share, not a division, nor a copy, but to be equal with, one must be "of" the same, or the SHARE, hence the G243 ἄλλος allos, which expresses a numerical difference and denotes another of the same sort. this is the H430 אֱלוֹהִים 'elohiym, or the plurality of God, as they describe the Spirit in the OT. many have missed the simple word, “of”, as in Son “of” God, or the Son “of” man. the PREPOSITION “of” translates the genitive case of nouns, of these the subjective and objective. of signify one is same as “another”. hence, the G243 ἄλλος allos, which expresses a numerical difference. STOP, the numerical difference is NOT another person, but the same person in a different “FORM”, as in Philippians 2:6-8 states, "Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God”. question, “how can one be in the form “OF” God and be equal with God?”, answer, be his “SHARE”. and that is found in the very verse here in Philippians 2:6, the word “Form”, and it’s root. here is how our Lord Jesus is the equal with God, FORM: G3444 μορφή morphe (mor-fay')
1. shape
2.nature
[perhaps from the base of G3313 (through the idea of adjustment of parts)]
KJV: form
Root(s): G3313

definition #2. the “NATURE”, but what kind of NATURE?, the answer is in the root of the word, G3313 μέρος meros (mer'-os) .
1. a division or share
there is our NATURE "equal" with God , a “SHARED”, nature. the Greek word G243 ἄλλος allos express this. listen, a numerical difference and denotes another of the same sort. the numerical difference is in a different form, (he took on humanity, flesh and blood). hence the subject, Spirit, without, flesh & blood, the Share in Flesh & blood, that how we get the titles, “Father”, Spirit, without, flesh & blood. the shared spirit, "of", God in Flesh & blood, “Son”. this is clearly shown in the OT book of Zechariah 13:7 "Awake, O sword, against my shepherd, and against the man that is my fellow, saith the LORD of hosts: smite the shepherd, and the sheep shall be scattered: and I will turn mine hand upon the little ones". if one cross ref this verse, one will see it is speaking of Jesus Christ, but the revealing word here is in the word, "FELLOW",H5997 עָמִיתּ `amiyth, which can be translated as "ANOTHER", hence the Greek identification of the same as G243 ἄλλος allos. not two person, NO, but the same person shared in flesh and blood, that's why JESUS said, "I and my Father are one". now that’s the numerical difference of Christ as G243 ἄλλος allos. now the “sort” of Christ as G243 ἄλλος allos. the definition of sort is 1. a particular kind, species, variety, class, or group, distinguished by a common character or nature 2. character, quality, or nature. this definition of “Sort” in the Greek word G243 ἄλλος eliminates false teaching of our God in several categories.

#1. since JESUS, God as a man in definition #1 of Sort, is in the same, class, the same group, and is the same particular kind, as the Spirit he is in share with. that just eliminated him, (Jesus), as “a” god, as some claim. because he is “of” the same class, Group, particular kind, and share the same common character and nature, as God who is the Holy Spirit.

#2. and the title Given, yes Given, to that shared spirit is “Son”, because of the character, “HOLY”. listen to the definition of Son. according to Vine dictionary, SON, G5207, huios, 1. used metaphorically of prominent moral characteristics. (there’s the character in the word sort, of Allos). 2. descendants, without reference to sex. (descendants, the Diversity, or the “offspring”, see Rev 22:16, Christ, God in Flesh is a descendant of King David according to the flesh). 3. those who manifest a certain character. (character, see Heb 1:3 the “express image”, of his PERSON. those words “express image”, is the Greek, G5481 χαρακτήρ charakter (khar-ak-tare') n. which means, 2. (by implication) engraving (("character"), the figure stamped, i.e. an exact copy or (figuratively) representation). there’s our words, again character, and figure. Romans 5:14 "Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression, who is the figureof him that was to come. of him, of him, him who?, God, the Holy Spirit. it is the Spirit that is the TRUE GOD. for God is “A” Spirit. and 2 Corinthians 3:17a "Now the Lord is that Spirit”. how plain can one be?. the “Lord”, (JESUS), is God shared in flesh. that why the angel of Revel 22:6 said, “the Lord God”, not just God, but the Lord God sent him. the Lord is God in Flesh. God came in Flesh, Isaiah 35:4, “Say to them that are of a fearful heart, Be strong, fear not: behold, your God will come with vengeance, even God with a recompence; he will come and save you. the share “of” God in Flesh, who is God, came.

#3. and since the Spirit is shared equally, the title, Father, and son, are by the Will of God. scripture, Hebrews 1:5 "For unto which of the angels said he at any time, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee? And again, I will be to him a Father, and he shall be to me a Son?". this is an act of the will of God. father, and Son, are titles by one's will according to the Spirit, not a biological Father, or son. example in scripture, 2 Corinthians 6:17 "Wherefore come out from among them, and be ye separate, saith the Lord, and touch not the unclean thing; and I will receive you, 18 And will be a Father unto you, and ye shall be my sons and daughters, saith the Lord Almighty. question, when did God beget you as a son or daughter according to the flesh?. now someone can be a father, or mother to someone without any biological ties. example, 1 Timothy 1:2 "Unto Timothy, my own son in the faith: Grace, mercy, and peace, from God our Father and Jesus Christ our Lord". Timothy was a son to Paul by FAITH, and not biologically.

this is just straight forward, no mystery, nothing hidden. it’s there plain in the scriptures, just look up the words, and read the scriptures.

there is no trinity. because the one who they called the “Father”, is actually the Holy Spirit. and that just eliminated one of the trinity members. and Jesus is no mere human. he is God that took on human form. so that eliminated the unitarian false beliefs also. and since God is shared, that eliminated the oneness doctrine
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Old 07-06-2014, 02:31 PM
 
Location: Arizona
28,956 posts, read 16,420,357 times
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No matter how you cut the pie; it was humanity at its worst who said, "Crucify him!"
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