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Old 08-27-2015, 02:23 PM
 
Location: In God's Hand
1,100 posts, read 797,895 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Eusebius View Post
If the KJV is "THE" Bible, why did the KJV screw up AIWN and AIWNION so badly and a host of other Greek words?
I'm going to have to say I do not know what you are talking about. Link and quoted examples would be nice.

As for why the KJV is THE Bible to rely on: go to this thread; second page, post # 11

//www.city-data.com/forum/chris...slation-3.html

If you cannot see how keeping the faith is the good fight here, then you better start praying to see why the KJV is keeping the meat of His words for His disciples to have in discerning good & evil in these latter days where faith is hard to find.
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Old 08-27-2015, 02:27 PM
 
19,942 posts, read 17,223,529 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by PoorInSpirit View Post
Ask Jesus. He is our Good Shepherd. Trust Him to help you see why the KJV is the one to rely on for the meat of His words in these latter days where faith is hard to find, because modern Bibles are declining from the testimonies of the Son, and supporting false teachings that hides apostasy for what they are today.

To see two examples as to why that is with His help; see post # 11 on page 2 of the thread at this link below.

//www.city-data.com/forum/chris...anslation.html
I really don't need to. I'm sorry....the fact is, the kjv is just not a great translation.
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Old 08-27-2015, 02:49 PM
 
Location: arizona ... most of the time
11,825 posts, read 12,512,306 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Vizio View Post
I really don't need to. I'm sorry....the fact is, the kjv is just not a great translation.
If one's faith has it dependent as a great translation, then who are those to think they have the right to put a stumbling block in front of him to say it is not?
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Old 08-28-2015, 06:34 AM
 
Location: S. Wales.
50,089 posts, read 20,789,459 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by PoorInSpirit View Post
Defects of the King James Version

First off; any one trying to understand the Bible by their modern day reasonings is going to see defects in the KJV rendition of the scripture. The problem here is not using His wisdom to understand what Paul is saying in context rather than lose onself in the wording of the verse and thus taken out of context.

...
That seems to settle the matter. The rest of the post about knowing nothing of oneself but relying on God's inspiration for correct interpretation is really nothing obviously to do with what is the better or worse translation. I was thinking for the moment that those passages were about translation not setting up a 'Poor in Spirit is right because God is telling him so' argument.

P.s look I want to give you a chance to make your case. Given that it isn't about what is closest to the original Greek or Hebrew, but what conveys the inspired truth of God whether or not it is a good translation or not.

Aside that this is a matter of personal inspiration and not at all far from my suggestion that the writers of the KJV were being inspired to write truths beyond the mere text, which supposes that the mistranslations are required in order to convey this hidden Truths otherwise other translations would do just as well.

So, assuming I understand where you are coming from (and if you are coming from anywhere other than Bat**** city, please correct me) would you please give some examples of where a KJV difference..shall we say...from the ESV or NIV is conveying some Truth that is missed by the later translations?

P. p. s..and please explain just how these truths conveyed by mistranslations are successfully carried over into translation of the KJV into Xhosa or Uigur, as you claimed (KJV can be translated into other languages).

P. p. p. s I still luv it here

Last edited by TRANSPONDER; 08-28-2015 at 07:04 AM..
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Old 08-28-2015, 08:20 AM
 
Location: In God's Hand
1,100 posts, read 797,895 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by AREQUIPA View Post
That seems to settle the matter. The rest of the post about knowing nothing of oneself but relying on God's inspiration for correct interpretation is really nothing obviously to do with what is the better or worse translation. I was thinking for the moment that those passages were about translation not setting up a 'Poor in Spirit is right because God is telling him so' argument.
Point of saying that is to lift the seekers' sights higher for confirmation; and not rely on my say so.

You, being a believer in the evolution theory,... not sure if you are able to receive from Him such discernment in other areas.

Quote:
So, assuming I understand where you are coming from (and if you are coming from anywhere other than Bat**** city, please correct me) would you please give some examples of where a KJV difference..shall we say...from the ESV or NIV is conveying some Truth that is missed by the later translations?
Some believers do not believe God is using His gift of tongues of other men's lips to speak unto the people as a prayer language for the Holy Spirit to use in making His own intercessions. Some that err, do. Why? Because the errant translation of Romans 8:26-27 in the ESV & the NIV implies it whereas he KJV does not.

To begin this "argument" is to point out that the Greek text says that the intercessions of the Holy Spirit are unspeakable; that means the Spirit cannot utter them or make them know verbally to God.

At this link is where the King James Bible of chapter 8 is running parallel with the Greek texts;

Romans Chapter 8 - King James Bible With Strong's Dictionary - Bible Software by johnhurt.com

Scroll down to verse 26 and click on the last Greek text to confirm what I am showing it means below:

alaletos is defined as:

Quote:
from a - a 1 (as a negative particle) and a derivative of lalew - laleo 2980; unspeakable:--unutterable, which cannot be uttered.
Romans 8:26 Likewise the Spirit also helpeth our infirmities: for we know not what we should pray for as we ought: but the Spirit itself maketh intercession for us with groanings which cannot be uttered. KJV

So that means the Holy Spirit cannot make His own intercessions directly Himself, even though He has them, because they cannot be uttered; hence no sound at all. This is why "itself" was used to testify that the Holy Spirit will serve as a means for how His intercessions will be known since He is not really making His intercessions Himself to make them known by Himself.

That is the point of the testimony of the Son in verse 27 as this "he" being the One that searches our hearts Whose identity can be known by referring to Hebrews 4:12-16 as this being the Word of God, Jesus Christ, that searches the thoughts & intents of the heart, as this is the "he" that knows the mind of the Spirit as it is that "he" that is the Son, that is making the intercessions of the Spirit's known to the Father per according to the will of God since the man, Christ Jesus is the only Mediator between God and men; 1 Timothy 2:5.

Romans 8:27 And he that searcheth the hearts knoweth what is the mind of the Spirit, because he maketh intercession for the saints according to the will of God. KJV

But looking at the ESV, NASB, & the NIV, you would think that sounds are being made when the Holy Spirit does give His intercessions directly by Himself.

Romans 8:26 Likewise the Spirit helps us in our weakness. For we do not know what to pray for as we ought, but the Spirit himself intercedes for us with groanings too deep for words. ESV

Romans 8:26 In the same way the Spirit also helps our weakness; for we do not know how to pray as we should, but the Spirit Himself intercedes for us with groanings too deep for words; NASB

Romans 8:26 In the same way, the Spirit helps us in our weakness. We do not know what we ought to pray for, but the Spirit himself intercedes for us through wordless groans. NIV

All three modern Bible versions are in error, implying that sounds are being made by these groanings when the KJV says these groanings are not uttered at all.

For those that believe in tongues being used as a prayer language by the Holy Spirit, they may see that verse as supportive of that supernatural tongue in spite of the fact that His intercessions are unspeakable.

Those in error will not be able to discern that this supernatural tongue is not of the Lord, but of the devil as Isaiah 8:19 testifies of how wizard and mediums that seek after familiar spirits will babble nonsense.

This is why believers are warned not to believe every spirit but test them; 1 John 4:1-7 because allot of believers are preaching something else when what they believe is the Holy Spirit; is falling over them "again", giving them a supernatural tongue that comes with no interpretation. They want to believe it is from God and so the phenomenon misleads other believers into thinking that this other baptism with the Holy Spirit with evidence of tongues is of God; and so all focus on the Holy Spirit to come and fall on them, addressing Him in worship is how they can get this supernatural tongue without interpretation.

And yet, the Holy Spirit does not answer prayers. Only the Son does so that the Father may be glorified in the Son for answered prayers; John 14:6,13-14.

They ignore the warning in 2 Corinthians 11:1-4 about those that preach another Jesus or another spirit to receive as the examination of our faith is that Jesus Christ is in us by faith as promised; 2 Corinthians 13:5 & Galatians 3:14,26 & Hebrews 11:1,6

They do not even care to see how their errant modern Bible has a grammatical error in Romans 8:27.

Romans 8:27 And he who searches hearts knows what is the mind of the Spirit, because[a] the Spirit intercedes for the saints according to the will of God. ESV

Romans 8:27 And he who searches our hearts knows the mind of the Spirit, because the Spirit intercedes for God’s people in accordance with the will of God. NIV

Although the NASB retains the promoun "he", they are still led to believe that this "he" in verse 27 is about the Holy Spirit because verse 26 is about the Holy Spirit, instead of reading verse 27 as to how the unspeakbale intercessions of the Spirit's are made known when He Himself, cannot utter them.

Romans 8:27 and He who searches the hearts knows what the mind of the Spirit is, because He intercedes for the [a]saints according to the will of God. NASB

But the KJV gives room to lean on the Lord to understand that because the intercessions of the Spirit's are unspeakable, then this he that knows the mind of the Spirit... is not the Spirit. The identity can be known by knowing Whom is searching our hearts which is confirmed by Hebrews 4:12-16, but there is an immediate information in verse 34 as to Who it is that is actually making these intercessions for us in that same chapter 8 of the Book of Romans.

Romans 8:34 Who is he that condemneth? It is Christ that died, yea rather, that is risen again, who is even at the right hand of God, who also maketh intercession for us. KJV.

The ESV,NIV, & NASB has it too, but the mentality is to read "also" as including the Holy Spirit's earlier when in light of what Romans 8:26-27 really means, then "also" as used in verse 34 was about the Son being at the right hand of God, who "also" makes intercessions for us by being at the right hand of God.

1 Timothy 4:1-2 prophesied about the falling away from the faith; and believers are believing every spirit that is coming over them "again" later in life after they had been saved by believing in Jesus Christ in thinking that was the Holy Spirit; especially when it brought a supernatural tongue. But because there is no interpretation, but babbling nonsense, they want to believe it is still of God in thinking it is a prayer language given by the Holy Spirit.

And who could tell them that is wrong? Modern Bibles testify wrongly that the Holy Spirit does make His own intercessions directly Himself and some Modern Bibles implies that sounds are being made.

The KJV does not. I thank the Lord Jesus Christ for helping me to see that truth as kept in the KJV alone.

This is one reason why I rely on the KJV over the ESV,NIV,NASB, & all other modern Bibles which is to keep the faith which is the good fight and not chase after what they believe to be the Holy Spirit to receive "again" after a sign, even the sign of tongues that comes with no interpretation.

Last edited by mensaguy; 08-29-2015 at 03:32 PM.. Reason: fixed quote tag
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Old 08-28-2015, 08:20 AM
 
17,966 posts, read 15,995,252 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by PoorInSpirit View Post
I'm going to have to say I do not know what you are talking about. Link and quoted examples would be nice.

As for why the KJV is THE Bible to rely on: go to this thread; second page, post # 11

//www.city-data.com/forum/chris...slation-3.html

If you cannot see how keeping the faith is the good fight here, then you better start praying to see why the KJV is keeping the meat of His words for His disciples to have in discerning good & evil in these latter days where faith is hard to find.
There are so many words the KJV translators mistranslated that it is overwhelming.

For instance, just for the Greek word AIWN (age) they have, followed by how many x's:
age 2x
beginning of the world 2x
course 1x
eternal 2x
ever 2x
for ever 27x
for ever and ever 21x
for evermore 3x
never 7x
world 32x
world began 1x
world without end 1x
while the world standeth 1x

The Concordant Literal New Testament didn't even translate AIWN but brought it directly over in its Anglicized form as "eon" every time AIWN is used.
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Old 08-28-2015, 08:26 AM
 
Location: In God's Hand
1,100 posts, read 797,895 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Eusebius View Post
There are so many words the KJV translators mistranslated that it is overwhelming.

For instance, just for the Greek word AIWN (age) they have, followed by how many x's:
age 2x
beginning of the world 2x
course 1x
eternal 2x
ever 2x
for ever 27x
for ever and ever 21x
for evermore 3x
never 7x
world 32x
world began 1x
world without end 1x
while the world standeth 1x

The Concordant Literal New Testament didn't even translate AIWN but brought it directly over in its Anglicized form as "eon" every time AIWN is used.
Is this claim of defects any where near the declining from the testimony of the Son that supports false tongues and thus apostasy as mentioned in post #15 of this thread?

Psalm 119:157 Many are my persecutors and mine enemies; yet do I not decline from thy testimonies. 158 I beheld the transgressors, and was grieved; because they kept not thy word.

Ask Jesus then.

John 7:7 The world cannot hate you; but me it hateth, because I testify of it, that the works thereof are evil.

1 Thessaonians 5:21 Prove all things; hold fast that which is good. 22 Abstain from all appearance of evil.
23 And the very God of peace sanctify you wholly; and I pray God your whole spirit and soul and body be preserved blameless unto the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ. 24 Faithful is he that calleth you, who also will do it.
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Old 08-28-2015, 11:34 AM
 
Location: S. Wales.
50,089 posts, read 20,789,459 times
Reputation: 5931
[quote=PoorInSpirit;40993345][quote=AREQUIPA;40992262]That seems to settle the matter. The rest of the post about knowing nothing of oneself but relying on God's inspiration for correct interpretation is really nothing obviously to do with what is the better or worse translation. I was thinking for the moment that those passages were about translation not setting up a 'Poor in Spirit is right because God is telling him so' argument.
Quote:

Point of saying that is to lift the seekers' sights higher for confirmation; and not rely on my say so.

You, being a believer in the evolution theory,... not sure if you are able to receive from Him such discernment in other areas.



Some believers do not believe God is using His gift of tongues of other men's lips to speak unto the people as a prayer language for the Holy Spirit to use in making His own intercessions. Some that err, do. Why? Because the errant translation of Romans 8:26-27 in the ESV & the NIV implies it whereas he KJV does not.

To begin this "argument" is to point out that the Greek text says that the intercessions of the Holy Spirit are unspeakable; that means the Spirit cannot utter them or make them know verbally to God.

At this link is where the King James Bible of chapter 8 is running parallel with the Greek texts;

Romans Chapter 8 - King James Bible With Strong's Dictionary - Bible Software by johnhurt.com

Scroll down to verse 26 and click on the last Greek text to confirm what I am showing it means below:

alaletos is defined as:



Romans 8:26 Likewise the Spirit also helpeth our infirmities: for we know not what we should pray for as we ought: but the Spirit itself maketh intercession for us with groanings which cannot be uttered. KJV

So that means the Holy Spirit cannot make His own intercessions directly Himself, even though He has them, because they cannot be uttered; hence no sound at all. This is why "itself" was used to testify that the Holy Spirit will serve as a means for how His intercessions will be known since He is not really making His intercessions Himself to make them known by Himself.

That is the point of the testimony of the Son in verse 27 as this "he" being the One that searches our hearts Whose identity can be known by referring to Hebrews 4:12-16 as this being the Word of God, Jesus Christ, that searches the thoughts & intents of the heart, as this is the "he" that knows the mind of the Spirit as it is that "he" that is the Son, that is making the intercessions of the Spirit's known to the Father per according to the will of God since the man, Christ Jesus is the only Mediator between God and men; 1 Timothy 2:5.

Romans 8:27 And he that searcheth the hearts knoweth what is the mind of the Spirit, because he maketh intercession for the saints according to the will of God. KJV

But looking at the ESV, NASB, & the NIV, you would think that sounds are being made when the Holy Spirit does give His intercessions directly by Himself.

Romans 8:26 Likewise the Spirit helps us in our weakness. For we do not know what to pray for as we ought, but the Spirit himself intercedes for us with groanings too deep for words. ESV

Romans 8:26 In the same way the Spirit also helps our weakness; for we do not know how to pray as we should, but the Spirit Himself intercedes for us with groanings too deep for words; NASB

Romans 8:26 In the same way, the Spirit helps us in our weakness. We do not know what we ought to pray for, but the Spirit himself intercedes for us through wordless groans. NIV

All three modern Bible versions are in error, implying that sounds are being made by these groanings when the KJV says these groanings are not uttered at all.

For those that believe in tongues being used as a prayer language by the Holy Spirit, they may see that verse as supportive of that supernatural tongue in spite of the fact that His intercessions are unspeakable.

Those in error will not be able to discern that this supernatural tongue is not of the Lord, but of the devil as Isaiah 8:19 testifies of how wizard and mediums that seek after familiar spirits will babble nonsense.

This is why believers are warned not to believe every spirit but test them; 1 John 4:1-7 because allot of believers are preaching something else when what they believe is the Holy Spirit; is falling over them "again", giving them a supernatural tongue that comes with no interpretation. They want to believe it is from God and so the phenomenon misleads other believers into thinking that this other baptism with the Holy Spirit with evidence of tongues is of God; and so all focus on the Holy Spirit to come and fall on them, addressing Him in worship is how they can get this supernatural tongue without interpretation.

And yet, the Holy Spirit does not answer prayers. Only the Son does so that the Father may be glorified in the Son for answered prayers; John 14:6,13-14.

They ignore the warning in 2 Corinthians 11:1-4 about those that preach another Jesus or another spirit to receive as the examination of our faith is that Jesus Christ is in us by faith as promised; 2 Corinthians 13:5 & Galatians 3:14,26 & Hebrews 11:1,6

They do not even care to see how their errant modern Bible has a grammatical error in Romans 8:27.

Romans 8:27 And he who searches hearts knows what is the mind of the Spirit, because[a] the Spirit intercedes for the saints according to the will of God. ESV

Romans 8:27 And he who searches our hearts knows the mind of the Spirit, because the Spirit intercedes for God’s people in accordance with the will of God. NIV

Although the NASB retains the promoun "he", they are still led to believe that this "he" in verse 27 is about the Holy Spirit because verse 26 is about the Holy Spirit, instead of reading verse 27 as to how the unspeakbale intercessions of the Spirit's are made known when He Himself, cannot utter them.

Romans 8:27 and He who searches the hearts knows what the mind of the Spirit is, because He intercedes for the [a]saints according to the will of God. NASB

But the KJV gives room to lean on the Lord to understand that because the intercessions of the Spirit's are unspeakable, then this he that knows the mind of the Spirit... is not the Spirit. The identity can be known by knowing Whom is searching our hearts which is confirmed by Hebrews 4:12-16, but there is an immediate information in verse 34 as to Who it is that is actually making these intercessions for us in that same chapter 8 of the Book of Romans.

Romans 8:34 Who is he that condemneth? It is Christ that died, yea rather, that is risen again, who is even at the right hand of God, who also maketh intercession for us. KJV.

The ESV,NIV, & NASB has it too, but the mentality is to read "also" as including the Holy Spirit's earlier when in light of what Romans 8:26-27 really means, then "also" as used in verse 34 was about the Son being at the right hand of God, who "also" makes intercessions for us by being at the right hand of God.

1 Timothy 4:1-2 prophesied about the falling away from the faith; and believers are believing every spirit that is coming over them "again" later in life after they had been saved by believing in Jesus Christ in thinking that was the Holy Spirit; especially when it brought a supernatural tongue. But because there is no interpretation, but babbling nonsense, they want to believe it is still of God in thinking it is a prayer language given by the Holy Spirit.

And who could tell them that is wrong? Modern Bibles testify wrongly that the Holy Spirit does make His own intercessions directly Himself and some Modern Bibles implies that sounds are being made.

The KJV does not. I thank the Lord Jesus Christ for helping me to see that truth as kept in the KJV alone.

This is one reason why I rely on the KJV over the ESV,NIV,NASB, & all other modern Bibles which is to keep the faith which is the good fight and not chase after what they believe to be the Holy Spirit to receive "again" after a sign, even the sign of tongues that comes with no interpretation.
So far as I can see, in either translation, the Holy Spirit interecedes. Whether the wordless groanings are audible or not doesn't matter.

KJV 8:26 Likewise the Spirit also helpeth our infirmities: for we know not what we should pray for as we ought: but the Spirit itself maketh intercession for us with groanings which cannot be uttered.
NIV 8 26 26 In the same way, the Spirit helps us in our weakness. We do not know what we ought to pray for, but the Spirit himself intercedes for us with groans that words cannot express
stenagmois alaletois
NAS: intercedes for [us] with groanings too deep for words;
KJV: us with groanings which cannot be uttered.
INT: Spirit makes intercession with groanings inexpressable

As said before weakness gets the sense over better than 'infirmities' and 'inexpressible' and 'too deep for words' is of greater depth than 'which cannot be uttered'.

Last edited by TRANSPONDER; 08-28-2015 at 11:48 AM..
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Old 08-28-2015, 11:24 PM
 
Location: S. Wales.
50,089 posts, read 20,789,459 times
Reputation: 5931
Quote:
Romans 8:27 And he who searches hearts knows what is the mind of the Spirit, because[a] the Spirit intercedes for the saints according to the will of God. ESV

Romans 8:27 And he who searches our hearts knows the mind of the Spirit, because the Spirit intercedes for God’s people in accordance with the will of God. NIV

Although the NASB retains the promoun "he", they are still led to believe that this "he" in verse 27 is about the Holy Spirit because verse 26 is about the Holy Spirit, instead of reading verse 27 as to how the unspeakbale intercessions of the Spirit's are made known when He Himself, cannot utter them.

Romans 8:27 and He who searches the hearts knows what the mind of the Spirit is, because He intercedes for the [a]saints according to the will of God. NASB
I presume that the above is some kind of argument of your own about the meaning of the passage. Because the KJV says just the same.

27 And he that searcheth the hearts knoweth what is the mind of the Spirit, because he maketh intercession for the saints according to the will of God.

That is apparently of no help in arguing whether the KJV is a better or worse translation.

Quote:
To begin this "argument" is to point out that the Greek text says that the intercessions of the Holy Spirit are unspeakable; that means the Spirit cannot utter them or make them know verbally to God.
This is a wild interpretation. The passage in either KJV or ESV or any other translation implies that the feeling of the people Paul is talking about are so profound that they cannot express them is words but groans, whether or not the groans themselves are uttered. I cannot see that your interpretation of this as the intercessions of the Spirit not being able to make them expressed or spoken to God is supported by any of the translations, including KJV. The use of 'He' in KJV obviously refers to God. But 'he' who searches the hearts and knows what is in the mind of the spirit is obviously God. There seems little room for error no matter what translation is used. But you still seem to have come up with some interpretation that the Spirit cannot speak the intercessions to God.

Whatever one thinks about that, it does not seem to be supported by the KJV rather than any of the others, so it doesn't help your case.

Last edited by TRANSPONDER; 08-28-2015 at 11:41 PM..
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Old 08-29-2015, 10:09 AM
 
8,669 posts, read 4,820,219 times
Reputation: 408
I have compared the King James to 5 Hebrew to English versions and Have not seen any Discrepancies.
If anyone has evidence indulge.
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