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Why are the Balkan nations poorer than those in the rest of Europe? They were poor even before the Soviets occupied them after World War Two.
So were Portugal, and parts of Spain. Little economic development, economies based mainly on sheepherding...? It raises the question: why were Poland and Czechoslovakia not as poor? They were closer to the bustling economy and investment capital of Germany? The Balkans also had been under the Ottoman Empire; maybe that slowed their growth.
Well they were killing each other through the 90's. And it's hard a transition from communism to capitalism (just look at certain parts of Russia)
No, they weren't. Only Yugoslavia, not Bulgaria and Romania. Not to mention: Greece. But Bulgaria and Romania had been part of the Ottoman Empire.
And actually, (speaking of Yugoslavia), Slovenia peeled off peacefully, and is doing better then the others. (Sharing a border with Austria and Italy helps.)
A lot has to do with the second world war, the communism regimes and how the Allies split the continent at Yalta.
Before the world war one the Czech republic was the most developed province from the Austrian Empire. Today Austria's GDP per capita is double the Czech Republic. Or look at the East Germany vs West Germany. A huge disparity in income in the 1990. I am not sure where East Germany would be today without all the transfers.
Don't forget Western Europe had the Marshall plan and later the countries like Greece, Spain and Portugal got a head start from EU funds in the 1980.
In Eastern Europe after the war the Russians simply disassembled whole factories and moved them to the Soviet Union. They took everything, the machinery, raw materials and the specialized workers and had them moved to Russia.
A lot has to do with the second world war, the communism regimes and how the Allies split the continent at Yalta.
Before the world war one the Czech republic was the most developed province from the Austrian Empire. Today Austria's GDP per capita is double the Czech Republic. Or look at the East Germany vs West Germany. A huge disparity in income in the 1990. I am not sure where East Germany would be today without all the transfers.
Don't forget Western Europe had the Marshall plan and later the countries like Greece, Spain and Portugal got a head start from EU funds in the 1980.
In Eastern Europe after the war the Russians simply disassembled whole factories and moved them to the Soviet Union. They took everything, the machinery, raw materials and the specialized workers and had them moved to Russia.
This doesn't explain why the southern half of E Europe (Romania & Balkans) is poorer than the more northerly half. Except that being part of Austria apparently helped Czechoslovakia.
Why are the Balkan nations poorer than those in the rest of Europe? They were poor even before the Soviets occupied them after World War Two.
The people of the Balkans did not invent circumnavigation of the globe and industrialization.
The people of the Balkans were relatively far from the modern superhighways (e.g. Atlantic Ocean) of trade and industrialization coming into the industrial era.
The people of the Balkans lived under two repressive regimes, one pre-industrial for many centuries coming into the industrial era, the other for about 45 years following a devastating industrial war, both relatively corrupt.
The last 25 years or so are too few to draw any conclusions.
Going forward ... Good Luck!
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Why are the Balkans poorer than the rest of Europe?
