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The second paragraph specifically refers to the first paragraph, which is clearly discussing natural born British subjects.
Ignoring that Wong Kim Ark also explicitly says that "subjects" and "citizens" are the same thing... how would you reconcile the Court's assertion that the same rule was still in effect after the Constitution was written if they were referring to natural born British subjects?
The second paragraph specifically refers to the first paragraph, which is clearly discussing natural born British subjects.
I guess the second part, where it refers to after the Declaration of Independence, they were referring to that British Declaration of Independence, right?
I guess the second part, where it refers to after the Declaration of Independence, they were referring to that British Declaration of Independence, right?
They're refering to time frames and geopolitically changing events, as is evidenced by the other conditions and events cited in that paragraph.
Ignoring that Wong Kim Ark also explicitly says that "subjects" and "citizens" are the same thing... how would you reconcile the Court's assertion that the same rule was still in effect after the Constitution was written if they were referring to natural born British subjects?
Okay... British subjects and British citizens are the same thing.
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