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"Like most other major auto lenders, Honda's business practice allowed car dealers discretion to vary a loan's interest rate based on a borrower's objective credit-related factors, the officials said."
What does that mean? If it's "objective" then it sounds like they're basing the interest rate on a fixed system, such as credit score and history. Are credit scores racist? Maybe we should wipe them away and give everyone an 800.
The Justice Department's Press Release uses the term " subjective" and makes clear that dealers had financial incentive to mark up interest rates, regardless of consumer creditworthiness and they apparently did so for minorities.
Either the author of this link does not know the difference between subjective and objective or he misspoke.
Honda eliminated the financial incentive in addition to the financial settlement.
Sounds like disparate impact/outcome based on group skin color theory strikes again. Dealers try to mark up the interest rate on everyone especially if you are a higher credit risk. It's non-whites fault that they failed to demand a better deal on interest, secure their own loan or have better credit.
Punish white achievement and reward non-white failure. I guarantee you if whites were paying higher interests as a group the government's response would be "Excellent! Excellent!".
The government use white tax dollars to sue on the behalf of non-whites for loans and, employment etc but never on the behalf of whites, and the government doesn't even need proof of discrimination to force a company to settle. This is blatant institutionalized government anti-white racism and discrimination.
Quote:
Honda affirmatively asserts that it has treated all of its customers without regard to race or national origin, and that its business practices have promoted and achieved fairness across all customer groups, the company said in the consent order, which was filed in a California federal court and requires judicial approval.
"Furthermore, Honda has not been informed that the United States contends Honda or any of its employees engaged in any intentional discrimination or disparate treatment of minorities," the company said
So the U.S. Government will force Honda to pay minorities and their lawyers because white people were a little better on average at negotiating loans to buy their product?
So the U.S. Government will force Honda to pay minorities and their lawyers because white people were a little better on average at negotiating loans to buy their product?
Yep, or if whites are hired more for being better, lower risk employees. But the government will never sue on behalf of whites if they have a worse outcome no matter what.
So the U.S. Government will force Honda to pay minorities and their lawyers because white people were a little better on average at negotiating loans to buy their product?
Quote:
Originally Posted by mtl1
Yep, or if whites are hired more for being better, lower risk employees. But the government will never sue on behalf of whites if they have a worse outcome no matter what.
Hispanics are 'white' when they commit crime but not white when they don't negotiate as good loan interest rate.
I'll bet as many or more lower class whites paid high interest rates, but middle and upper class whites, jews and other 'whites' made up the difference.
Disparate impact policy is so full of holes and based on purposely faulty and incomplete data, and more importantly applied in one direction to only favor non-whites, it ought to be called disadvantage whites policy.
The government taking one particular group' s rights, achievements and property to give to other groups and not providing equal protection is whining? In liberal bizarro world maybe.
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