Word of god? (salvation, grace, church, Holy Spirit)
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also its apparent to me that there are many similarities in all religions..to the point that it seems to have come from the same source...
Yes, mostly from Sumeria, Babylon, Egypt and Mesopotamia....and all originated thousands of years before Christianity. The stories are the same, only the names have changed!
So then if it's man's interpretation, how then can Christians so emphatically declare who's doomed to hell?
I am actually going to refrain from too much of a response on that one.
Let's just say it is dangerous and unwise for anyone to judge who will or will not go to Heaven and who will and will not go to hell. We are not the judge, God is. When it all comes right down to it, even us Christians might be surprised to find who did and did NOT make it to Heaven/hell.
Most drastically, when it is man who has decided what books and stories to include, and even more tellingly, exclude from the bible. Word of god? No, just man trying to gain power over his fellows. Just my opinion.
Theists claim that the bible is "The inerrant, infallible and inspired word of God".
Question for debate:
Which one of the seventy-five or so versions of the bible, which differ from one another, is the "inerrant, infallible, inspired word of god"? How do they identify the correct version?
I claim the Bible is the inerrant, infallible, inspired Word of God in it's original manuscripts. I concede there could be extremely minor translation or transcription errors (<2%). However, those errors in no way impact the foundational tenants or any doctrinal truths provided by the Bible.
The main differences between the different versions of the Bible are in readability or use of modern english. They may use different words, but the subject is the same. Example Romans 1:18-20 --
(NIV) "The wrath of God is being revealed from heaven against all the godlessness and wickedness of men who suppress the truth by their wickedness, since what may be known about God is plain to them, because God has made it plain to them. For since the creation of the world God's invisible qualities—his eternal power and divine nature—have been clearly seen, being understood from what has been made, so that men are without excuse."
(KJV) "For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men, who hold the truth in unrighteousness; Because that which may be known of God is manifest in them; for God hath shewed it unto them. For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse:"
(NASB) "For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men who suppress the truth in unrighteousness, because that which is known about God is evident within them; for God made it evident to them. For since the creation of the world His invisible attributes, His eternal power and divine nature, have been clearly seen, being understood through what has been made, so that they are without excuse."
See. the meaning and the message are the same, just different words to convey that message are utilized.
I claim the Bible is the inerrant, infallible, inspired Word of God in it's original manuscripts. I concede there could be extremely minor translation or transcription errors (<2%). However, those errors in no way impact the foundational tenants or any doctrinal truths provided by the Bible.
The main differences between the different versions of the Bible are in readability or use of modern english. They may use different words, but the subject is the same. Example Romans 1:18-20 --
(NIV) "The wrath of God is being revealed from heaven against all the godlessness and wickedness of men who suppress the truth by their wickedness, since what may be known about God is plain to them, because God has made it plain to them. For since the creation of the world God's invisible qualities—his eternal power and divine nature—have been clearly seen, being understood from what has been made, so that men are without excuse."
(KJV) "For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men, who hold the truth in unrighteousness; Because that which may be known of God is manifest in them; for God hath shewed it unto them. For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse:"
(NASB) "For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men who suppress the truth in unrighteousness, because that which is known about God is evident within them; for God made it evident to them. For since the creation of the world His invisible attributes, His eternal power and divine nature, have been clearly seen, being understood through what has been made, so that they are without excuse."
See. the meaning and the message are the same, just different words to convey that message are utilized.
If there was very little difference in the message there wouldn't be so many different denominations of Christianity would there?
That's still a matter of man's interpretation and branching out with those varying interpretations.
I believe whether Mormon, Catholic, JW, Baptist or otherwise, we're all part of Christ's family...as long as the relationship with Christ is there, the basics are covered.
That's still a matter of man's interpretation and branching out with those varying interpretations.
....but my argument is that if the message is the same then shouldn't be any "varying interpretation". It's because all these bible versions are so different that they are interpreted in so many different ways.
....but my argument is that if the message is the same then shouldn't be any "varying interpretation". It's because all these bible versions are so different that they are interpreted in so many different ways.
While I think that man has really twisted a lot of the scriptures to suit his own self, I do believe there can possibly be more than one accurate interpretation as well. God speaks to different people in different ways. What might work for one, won't necessarily work for another. Sometimes I think God speaks specifically to someone in scripture in order to draw them to Him. However, that doesn't change the whole concept of the message, nor does it make it any less valid.
While I do think it's possible for God to speak differently to different people, via scripture...that is on a personal level. I don't think it's proper for so many "leaders" to draw so many interpretations and try to falsely push them off as being "true".
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