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bona fide (latin, "with good faith"), meaning genuine sincere, without intention to deceive.
Blinkered, having on blinkers, eye patches on horses designed to keep them focused straight ahead and to ignore peripheral vision. Generally pejorative, as in, one is cherry picking one's facts and inputs and ignoring inconvenient truths, e.g., "deliberately blinkered".
So ... no, they are not the same. One is open and genuine and curious and inclusive, the other, closed and selective and exclusionary.
Now as to Jogn and God in man, it's a curious matter. God is supposed to be everywhere, but since God canot live with evil in heaven, it would be odd if he could occupy evel beings on earth. And since we are all evil, he cannot be in us, unless we let him, to use a Mystic simile, put in a phone -line.
So one could argue that Jesus was a particular creation - a human without sin that he could occupy, as he occupies everywhere else.
Two questions for Christians and non-Christians. Correct me if I'm wrong since I don't study the Bible and there seems some contradictions and lots that is up for interpretation.
A bunch of people knew or believed Jesus was God when he was born including his parents and 3 (or more?) kings who traveled great distances to witness it. But then why was his first 30 years of life very ordinary and mostly undocumented? He was a typical carpenter but then all of the sudden decided to preach and use superhuman powers for the sake of mankind just for the last 3 years of his life?
What happened to his body after he died? Did it physically rise or is what people saw the holy spirit?
What bunch of people knew or believed Jesus was God. Christendom teaches that, but the Bible does Not teach that.
Even Jesus' recorded words at John 10:36 Jesus says he is God's Son.
Even the demons know who Jesus is at Luke 4:41.
The physical are Not resurrected to heaven. Flesh and blood (physical) do Not go to heaven.
The resurrected Jesus appeared to his God in heaven according to Hebrews 9:24
Jesus still thinks he has a God over him according to Revelation 3:12.
Jesus did Not send himself to Earth. His God sent Jesus to Earth.
Before God sent Jesus to Earth Jesus had a spirit body, thus Jesus was resurrected back into his spirit body.
Jesus did Not resurrect himself, his God resurrected him -> Acts 2:24; Acts 3:15; Acts 13:30,37; Colossians 2:12
The result is the same. The mind becomes closed.
Now as to John and God in man, it's a curious matter. God is supposed to be everywhere, but since God cannot live with evil in heaven, it would be odd if he could occupy evil beings on earth. And since we are all evil, he cannot be in us, unless we let him, to use a Mystic simile, put in a phone -line.
So one could argue that Jesus was a particular creation - a human without sin that he could occupy, as he occupies everywhere else.
How about that?
The heavens are cleansed of evil according to Revelation 12:7-9,12; Jude verse 6.
Our Father which art in ' heaven ', so God has a specific home location address according to 1st Kings 8:30,39,49, so God is Not everywhere.
God sends forth His spirit to create according to Psalm 104:30.
Now as to Jogn and God in man, it's a curious matter. God is supposed to be everywhere, but since God canot live with evil in heaven, it would be odd if he could occupy evel beings on earth. And since we are all evil, he cannot be in us, unless we let him, to use a Mystic simile, put in a phone -line.
So one could argue that Jesus was a particular creation - a human without sin that he could occupy, as he occupies everywhere else.
The logical reasoning and common-sense extrapolation seemed completely sound to me. What are the fallacies, and how are you aware (evidence) of the intention to deceive?
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