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Originally Posted by Eusebius Whoppers, the gospels were meant to be historically accurate in spite of what that priest says. Accuracy was the highest priority on the author's mind. Why would they take all the pains to write to prove Jesus is the Messiah by being sloppy? No, I will never buy that.
Quote:
Originally Posted by ancient warrior
RESPONSE:
Really? Does your present belief system require you to reject the evidence to the contrary and just believe on "faith."
The internal evidence of the four accounts and their accuracy require me to reject the abnormal idea that the four accounts were not written to be accurate. There is no faith required to see this is so. There is faith required to believe God exists, that Christ died for our sins and that all mankind will eventually be saved.
Quote:
Faith not supported by the evidence is gullibility.
Because I see the divine accuracy in their writings. I don't call them "gospels." I call them "the four accounts."
Well, duh! Of course they are biased! If you saw your Saviour killed, entombed, you lost all hope, then three days later your Saviour is risen from the dead and talking to you I am sure you'd be biased tool. Right? I mean, if you were a rational human being I take it you'd be biased.
It's just not registering with you is it, despite being told over and over again. Once again.....
The gospel authors did not know your Jesus. They never met him, never walked with him and saw nothing of the alleged events attributed to the Jesus character. They didn't see him (allegedly) crucified and they didn't see him (allegedly) resurrected.....THEY WERE NOT THERE!
Rafius, that is just not true. John was an eyewitness of the life, death and resurrection of Jesus:
John also wrote.
This is the disciple who bears witness of these things, and wrote these things; and we know that his witness is true (John 21:24).
John was "the disciple" and in the context a few verses earlier, John was the disciple whom Jesus loved. It might be a Hebraism to write in the third person when speaking of one's self.
For instance, sometimes when Yahweh spoke to people He says "Yahweh says to you . . . ."
1 John 4
8 Whoever does not love does not know God, because God is love.
1 Corinthians 13
4 Love is patient, love is kind. It does not envy, it does not boast, it is not proud. 5 It does not dishonor others, it is not self-seeking, it is not easily angered, it keeps no record of wrongs.
Exodus 20
5 You shall not bow down to them or worship them; for I, the LORD your God, am a jealous God, punishing the children for the sin of the parents to the third and fourth generation of those who hate me,
I thought this was worth repeating, since it was overlooked. How do we reconcile the two?
[quote=Eusebius;23266445]The internal evidence of the four accounts and their accuracy require me to reject the abnormal idea that the four accounts were not written to be accurate. There is no faith required to see this is so. There is faith required to believe God exists, that Christ died for our sins and that all mankind will eventually be saved.
RESPONSE:
"Internal evidence"? Really???
Ok. Lets start with the Gospel we call Matthew's.
Was Jesus born during the lifetime of King Herod the Great (who died in 4 BC) ? Matt 2-2.
Or was Jesus born during the Roman census of Judea by Quirinius in 6 A.D.? (Luke 2.2)
Originally Posted by distraff 1 John 4
8 Whoever does not love does not know God, because God is love.
1 Corinthians 13
4 Love is patient, love is kind. It does not envy, it does not boast, it is not proud. 5 It does not dishonor others, it is not self-seeking, it is not easily angered, it keeps no record of wrongs.
Exodus 20
5 You shall not bow down to them or worship them; for I, the LORD your God, am a jealous God, punishing the children for the sin of the parents to the third and fourth generation of those who hate me,
Quote:
Originally Posted by mzjamiedawn
I thought this was worth repeating, since it was overlooked. How do we reconcile the two?
In the Exodus quote it was concerning Israel's agreement with God that should they fail to do the law they would received the curses of the law but if they do the law they would receive the blessings tied to the law. God was only going to give them what they agreed to.
I see nothing contradictory with Exodus 20 and the former verses. For instance, God agreeing with Israel and Israel agreeing with God that they (Israel) would receive the curses of the law should they fail to keep the law does not contradict God being love. Actually it was a very loving thing for God to do in order to show them their inability to keep all the law.
Here is a more literal translation of 1 Corinthians 13:
1Co 13:4-8 Love is patient, is kind. Love is not jealous. Love is not
bragging, is not puffed up, (5) is not indecent, is not self-seeking, is not
incensed, is not taking account of evil, (6) is not rejoicing in injustice, yet
is rejoicing together with the truth, (7) is forgoing all, is believing all, is
expecting all, is enduring all." (8) Love is never lapsing: yet, whether
prophecies, they will be discarded, or languages, they will cease, or
knowledge, it will be discarded."
Rafius, that is just not true. John was an eyewitness of the life, death and resurrection of Jesus:
John also wrote.
This is the disciple who bears witness of these things, and wrote these things; and we know that his witness is true (John 21:24).
John was "the disciple" and in the context a few verses earlier, John was the disciple whom Jesus loved. It might be a Hebraism to write in the third person when speaking of one's self.
For instance, sometimes when Yahweh spoke to people He says "Yahweh says to you . . . ."
RESPONSE:
>>John also wrote. "This is the disciple who bears witness of these things, and wrote these things; and we know that his witness is true (John 21:24).>>
"Fom the New American Bible Revised Edition 2011, Introduction to John
Critical analysis makes it difficult to accept the idea that the gospel as it now stands was written by one person. Jn 21 seems to have been added after the gospel was completed; it exhibits a Greek style somewhat different from that of the rest of the work. The prologue (Jn 1:1–18) apparently contains an independent hymn, subsequently adapted to serve as a preface to the gospel. Within the gospel itself there are also some inconsistencies, e.g., there are two endings of Jesus’ discourse in the upper room (Jn 14:31; 18:1)."
>>John was "the disciple" and in the context a few verses earlier, John was the disciple whom Jesus loved. It might be a Hebraism to write in the third person when speaking of one's self.<<
RESPONSE:
Please cite the specific New Testament scripture that claims John was the beloved disciple. A better argument can be made for Lazarus.
John 19:26-27
When Jesus saw his mother* and the disciple there whom he loved, he said to his mother, “Woman, behold, your son.”n 27Then he said to the disciple, “Behold, your mother.” And from that hour the disciple took her into his home.
Since John lived in Galilee, a three day journey from Jerusalem, he couldn't have taken mary into his home "from that hour." But Lazarus lived in Bethany 2 miles from Jerusalem.
Last edited by ancient warrior; 03-05-2012 at 12:14 PM..
Reason: typo
The internal evidence of the four accounts and their accuracy require me to reject the abnormal idea that the four accounts were not written to be accurate. There is no faith required to see this is so. There is faith required to believe God exists, that Christ died for our sins and that all mankind will eventually be saved.
RESPONSE:
"Internal evidence"? Really???
Ok. Lets start with the Gospel we call Matthew's.
Was Jesus born during the lifetime of King Herod the Great (who died in 4 BC) ? Matt 2-2.
Or was Jesus born during the Roman census of Judea by Quirinius in 6 A.D.? (Luke 2.2)
Christ was not born in the year ZERO if that's causing you some confusion (as if there really was a date of zero back then (lol). The terms B.C. and A.D. are not really correct. Some theologions have Christ being born around 6 B.C. Herod died about two years after Jesus was born and before Quirinius was governing Siria.
In the most ancient Uncial Greek manuscripts we have it should be written thus:
"This registration occurred before [Grk. PROTOS] Quirinius was being governor of Syria."
John 19:26-27
When Jesus saw his mother* and the disciple there whom he loved, he said to his mother, “Woman, behold, your son.”n 27Then he said to the disciple, “Behold, your mother.” And from that hour the disciple took her into his home.
Since John lived in Galilee, a three day journey from Jerusalem, he couldn't have taken mary into his home "from that hour." But Lazarus lived in Bethany 2 miles from Jerusalem.
Oh dear! This is why it is important to have a literal translation such as the Concordant Literal New Testament:
Joh 19:27 Thereafter He is saying to the disciple, "Lo! your mother!And from that hour the disciple took her to his own.
The Greek word for "own" is IDIOS which is in the Greek texts. "Home" would be "oikos."
The apostolic bible polyglot has:
(ABP+) ThenG1534 he saysG3004 to theG3588 disciple,G3101 Behold,G2400 G3588 your mother.G3384 G1473 AndG2532 fromG575 thatG1565 G3588 hourG5610 [3tookG2983 4herG1473 1theG3588 2disciple]G3101 forG1519 his own.G3588 G2398
(EMTV) Then He said to the disciple, "Behold your mother!" And from that hour that disciple took her into his own care.
(Murdock) And he said to that disciple: Behold, thy mother. And from that hour, the disciple took her near himself.
(GNT-V) ειτα λεγει τω μαθητη Aιδε TSBιδου η μητηρ σου και απ εκεινης της ωρας ελαβεν TSαυτην ο μαθητης BAαυτην εις τα ιδια
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