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I repeat what I said before. The gospel of John is dated any time between 90CE -110CE.
Even if we place it at 90CE, are you seriously asking me to believe that a person writing so long after the alleged events remembered what was said, to whom and when they said it?? In fact, you could say the same about all the gospels.
....and as you have only mentioned John, do you agree that Matthew, Mark and Luke never met your Jesus?
John 14:26 ''But the Helper, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in My name, He will teach you all things, and bring to your remembrance all that I said to you.''
Sorry, I have no interest in Bible apologist web-sites.
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Matthew obviously met Jesus because He was the disciple of Jesus. Now whether the author of the account called "Matthew" met the Lord, I don't know.
Well THAT is what we are discussing isn't it....whether the anonymous authors of the gospels were eye-witnesses to the events, which is what you claim or whether the gospels are a collection of 'hearsay' stories written decades after the events by people that were not present.
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Let me ask you this: Who is your favorite historian if you have one?
One of the most remarkable concessions made by the Jews is found in the Babylonian Talmud, Sanhedrin 43A. There it is definitely stated that Jesus, the son of Mary, was "a kin of the royal family."
It also says that Jesus was the bastard son of a Roman soldier, was conceived during menstruation and was hanged. You OK with that?
Rafius responded:
Sorry, I have no interest in Bible apologist web-sites.
Eusebius' reply:
That's too bad. You seem to be drawn to all the web sites that write against the Bible. I just thought you'd like to be a fair and balanced person. I guess I was wrong.
Basically, the writing at that link screws your ideas to kingdom come.
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Eusebius wrote:
Matthew obviously met Jesus because He was the disciple of Jesus. Now whether the author of the account called "Matthew" met the Lord, I don't know
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Rafius's reply:
Well THAT is what we are discussing isn't it....whether the anonymous authors of the gospels were eye-witnesses to the events, which is what you claim or whether the gospels are a collection of 'hearsay' stories written decades after the events by people that were not present.
Obviously they are eye-witness accounts of what Jesus did and said.
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Eusebius wrote:
Let me ask you this: Who is your favorite historian if you have one?
It also says that Jesus was the bastard son of a Roman soldier, was conceived during menstruation and was hanged. You OK with that?
....then why don't you answer it.
Well, that would accurately record what they actually mistakenly thought about Him being a bastard and conceived during menstruation even though He was begotten by Holy Spirit. They were historically correct that He was hanged on a pole. All these things are in accord with what the New Testament writers say except the menstruation part and Roman soldier part. But the New Testament does record that the religious leaders accused Jesus of being a bastard.
Where do they agree to the "ten commandments"? Was not the law just laid down to them?
Yes, the law was laid down just to Isreal.
Exo 19:7-8 So Moses came and called for the elders of the people and placed before them all these words which Yahweh had instructed him. (8) Now all the people responded together and said: All that Yahweh speaks we shall do. When Moses brought back the words of the people to Yahweh,
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It was loving for God to punish their children up to 4 generations for their sins?
Well, that is what they agreed He could do if He wanted to. But He was merciful.
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To show them their inability to keep all the law? So you're saying God knew they would not be able to keep all the law, but laid it down anyway, then will punish them severely for not being able to keep it?
Most people don't realize that the law was given so that the offense would actually increase: (see Romans 5:20),
And it was given to escort them to Christ (see Gal.3:24).
God created mankind flesh. He gave the law knowing full well that, they being flesh would not be able to keep the law:
Rom 8:7-8 because the disposition of the flesh is enmity to God, for it is not subject to the law of God, for neither is it able." (8) Now those who are in flesh are not able to please God.
God had to prove to them they could not keep the law. This is what a loving parent would do. I am a parent and I would teach my child it has limitations. Do you think it would be evil of me to make a law that my daughter not go past the sidewalk NO MATTER WHAT or she gets grounded for a week, and she agrees to that? And if she breaks my law I go through with what we both agreed upon? Or do you think it would be more loving to just laugh about her breaking my law, let her walk out into the street and get hit by a Mack truck or get taken by a predator?
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God is love. Love is not jealous. God says He is a jealous God.
I repeat what I said before. The gospel of John is dated any time between 90CE -110CE.
Saying so does not prove so.
John died around 100 A.D. so He could not possibly have written his account in 110ce as you suppose. I think he wrote a lot of it as it happened.
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Even if we place it at 90CE, are you seriously asking me to believe that a person writing so long after the alleged events remembered what was said, to whom and when they said it?? In fact, you could say the same about all the gospels.
"For much of this late dating there is little real evidence. This point was made by C. H. Dodd, arguably the greatest English-speaking biblical scholar of the century. In a letter that serves as an appendix to Robinson’s book Redating the New Testament, Dodd wrote: “I should agree with you that much of the late dating is quite arbitrary, even wanton, the offspring not of any argument that can be presented, but rather of the critic’s prejudice that, if he appears to assent to the traditional position of the early church, he will be thought no better than a stick-in-the-mud.”5
"Many years earlier the same point was made by C. C. Torrey, professor of Semitic Languages at Yale from 1900 to 1932. He wrote: “I challenged my NT colleagues to designate one passage from any one of the four Gospels giving clear evidence of a date later than 50 A.D. . . . The challenge was not met, nor will it be, for there is no such passage.”6"
5 Redating the New Testament, p. 360. 6 Quoted in J. Wenham, Redating Matthew, Mark, and Luke, Hodder and Stoughton, London, p. 299 note 2.
Where does it say in the Bible that "Man originally was created as a hermaphrodite in which the female was inside him"? I hope you will quote the verse of scripture where it said that for all to see. Be sure and provide Bible book, chapter, and verse. Then explain to the forum why you believe the scripture you quoted means what you say it means.
Gen 2:22 And Yahweh Elohim is building the angular organ, which He takes
from the human, into a woman, and bringing her is He to the human.
That angular organ is the same sex angular organ present in women today.
Do you not know that there are cases of people being born hermaphrodite? I personally know of a man born that way. He married my friend's daughter and they just had a baby. He has both male and female genitalia.
Hmm,my first time ever hearing about ADAM being a hermaphodite .
I mean,if you belive THAT,then you might as well believe homosexuality isn't a choice,or a sin for that matter.
A man that turns himself into a woman isn't sinning in your eyes Eusebius?
Also,I thought Moses wrote the first 5 books of the bible,so who is this second author who wrote Genesis?
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