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Old 05-30-2014, 05:53 PM
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Eusebius
Quote:
It depends upon where you put the comma. In a properly translated Bible it is like this:

"I say to you today, you will be with me in paradise."
It is my understanding there was no punctuation in the original texts so it should read:
I say to you today you will be with me in paradise
Also, Paradise is not heaven. It is an Oriental word that means garden or park. It's what the earth will be once again, "a garden," when Christ returns to set up His Kingdom, and He was telling the repentant thief, you will be in My Kingdom.

Remember the thief said, "When you come into your kingdom."
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Old 05-30-2014, 05:58 PM
 
18,172 posts, read 16,461,925 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Katzpur View Post
And what makes you so sure that in a "properly translated" Bible, the comma would go after the word "today," instead of after the word, "you"? I mean, it sounds like you are just putting the comma where you believe it should be, based on what you believe Jesus was saying. The only way anyone could know for sure would to have heard Jesus make the statement, in which case His voice inflection would have been the indicating factor.
Nope, Greek grammar. The basic rule is:

A Specific Rule

When the Greek adverb SHMERON (today) takes second position to a verb (lego-tell) in the same sentence[20] it always further modifies the verb in the first position, without exception, in the corpus of the Greek Septuagint and Greek New Testament.


Shmeron
is the word in question.
In every instance of the word order found in Luke 23:43, in the Greek texts (NT and LXX) the use is consistent with "truly I tell you today,"; not truly I tell you, today

It follows the Hebrew idiom as well.

Dr. George Lamsa* writes: "According to the Aramaic manner of speech, the emphasis in this text is on the word "today" and should read , "Truly I say to you today, you will be with me in Paradise.". . . This is a characteristic of Oriental speech implying that the promise was made on a certain day and would surely be kept". - Gospel Light from Aramaic on the Teachings of Jesus. The Hebrew Scriptures themselves provide numerous examples of this solemn idiom using "today". - Zech. 9:12; Deut. 4:26, 39, and 40 other instances in the book of Deuteronomy alone.

The popular translations avoid this because if they did it right, they would become unpopular and ... unprofitable to the publishers.
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Old 05-30-2014, 06:55 PM
 
Location: Arizona
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I tell you today: "You will be with me in paradise." You will be with me, is predicated on the future tense.
However, I have no doubt that the grave would be a form of paradise, compared to that of dying on a cross.
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Old 05-30-2014, 08:01 PM
 
Location: Salt Lake City
28,139 posts, read 30,070,495 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by expatCA View Post
Nope, Greek grammar. The basic rule is:

A Specific Rule

When the Greek adverb SHMERON (today) takes second position to a verb (lego-tell) in the same sentence[20] it always further modifies the verb in the first position, without exception, in the corpus of the Greek Septuagint and Greek New Testament.


Shmeron is the word in question.
In every instance of the word order found in Luke 23:43, in the Greek texts (NT and LXX) the use is consistent with "truly I tell you today,"; not truly I tell you, today

It follows the Hebrew idiom as well.

Dr. George Lamsa* writes: "According to the Aramaic manner of speech, the emphasis in this text is on the word "today" and should read , "Truly I say to you today, you will be with me in Paradise.". . . This is a characteristic of Oriental speech implying that the promise was made on a certain day and would surely be kept". - Gospel Light from Aramaic on the Teachings of Jesus. The Hebrew Scriptures themselves provide numerous examples of this solemn idiom using "today". - Zech. 9:12; Deut. 4:26, 39, and 40 other instances in the book of Deuteronomy alone.

The popular translations avoid this because if they did it right, they would become unpopular and ... unprofitable to the publishers.
Well, thank you for that information. That was really very interesting. I'll have to look into that further. Do you, by any chance, have an explanation of why some Bibles (the KJV, for sure) separates the word "today" into "to day."
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Old 05-30-2014, 08:47 PM
Zur
 
949 posts, read 833,077 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Katzpur View Post
Well, thank you for that information. That was really very interesting. I'll have to look into that further. Do you, by any chance, have an explanation of why some Bibles (the KJV, for sure) separates the word "today" into "to day."
I think the translators of KJV realized that this is an idiom and the word to day does not mean the same day, but it points to the day of the resurrection of Christ, when the First Fruits were raised, the OT saints went as First Fruits with Christ on Sunday morning to Paradise which is now in Heaven. In Paradise is the tree of life which is not in the earth, where Jesus went the same day. Therefore the best translation is: Surely I tell you today, you will be ...
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Old 05-30-2014, 09:36 PM
 
1,311 posts, read 1,534,358 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Katzpur View Post
Do you, by any chance, have an explanation of why some Bibles (the KJV, for sure) separates the word "today" into "to day."
From The KJV Dictionary:

To
28. To-day, to-night, to-morrow, are peculiar phrases derived from our ancestors. To in the two first, has the sense or force of this; this day, this night. In the last, it is equivalent to in or on; in or on the morrow. The words may be considered as compounds, to-day, to-night, to-morrow, and usually as adverbs. But sometimes they are used as nouns; as, to-day is ours.

To and from, backward and forward. In this phrase, to is adverbial.

To the face, in presence of; not in the absence of.

I withstood him face to face. Gal.2.

To-morrow, to-morrow, and to-morrow,

Creeps in this petty pace from day to day.

Note.--In the foregoing explanation of to, it is to be considered that the definition given is not always the sense of to by itself, but the sense rather of the word preceding it, or connected with it, or of to in connection with other words. In general, to is used in the sense of moving towards a place, or towards an object, or it expresses direction towards a place, end, object or purpose.

To is often used adverbially to modify the sense of verbs; as, to come to; to heave to. The sense of such phrases is explained under the verbs respectively.
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Old 05-30-2014, 10:21 PM
 
Location: Arizona
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Pastor Al View Post
From The KJV Dictionary:

To
28. To-day, to-night, to-morrow, are peculiar phrases derived from our ancestors. To in the two first, has the sense or force of this; this day, this night. In the last, it is equivalent to in or on; in or on the morrow. The words may be considered as compounds, to-day, to-night, to-morrow, and usually as adverbs. But sometimes they are used as nouns; as, to-day is ours.

To and from, backward and forward. In this phrase, to is adverbial.

To the face, in presence of; not in the absence of.

I withstood him face to face. Gal.2.

To-morrow, to-morrow, and to-morrow,

Creeps in this petty pace from day to day.

Note.--In the foregoing explanation of to, it is to be considered that the definition given is not always the sense of to by itself, but the sense rather of the word preceding it, or connected with it, or of to in connection with other words. In general, to is used in the sense of moving towards a place, or towards an object, or it expresses direction towards a place, end, object or purpose.

To is often used adverbially to modify the sense of verbs; as, to come to; to heave to. The sense of such phrases is explained under the verbs respectively.
Well, ... that explains it.
But, this day is not, that day.
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Old 05-31-2014, 01:34 PM
 
Location: arizona ... most of the time
11,825 posts, read 12,521,568 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Pastor Al View Post
From The KJV Dictionary:

To
28. To-day, to-night, to-morrow, are peculiar phrases derived from our ancestors. To in the two first, has the sense or force of this; this day, this night. In the last, it is equivalent to in or on; in or on the morrow. The words may be considered as compounds, to-day, to-night, to-morrow, and usually as adverbs. But sometimes they are used as nouns; as, to-day is ours.

To and from, backward and forward. In this phrase, to is adverbial.

To the face, in presence of; not in the absence of.

I withstood him face to face. Gal.2.

To-morrow, to-morrow, and to-morrow,

Creeps in this petty pace from day to day.

Note.--In the foregoing explanation of to, it is to be considered that the definition given is not always the sense of to by itself, but the sense rather of the word preceding it, or connected with it, or of to in connection with other words. In general, to is used in the sense of moving towards a place, or towards an object, or it expresses direction towards a place, end, object or purpose.

To is often used adverbially to modify the sense of verbs; as, to come to; to heave to. The sense of such phrases is explained under the verbs respectively.
It is well founded that it is the well tested ploy of Satan to alter the truth just enough to change the meaning of what God said:
“Did God really say, ‘You must not eat from any tree in the garden’?”
so it's not surprising when it's done again with God when Satan alters it
Jesus answered him, “Truly I tell you today, you will be with me in paradise.”
Long ago God said there will be enmity between the children of God and the children of the devil (Genesis 3:15) and what do you think the vehicle of means by which will be used ... the altering of God's Word to change it's meaning.
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Old 05-31-2014, 01:39 PM
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Eusebius View Post
Paradise isn't heaven. Paradise will be in the future kingdom Jesus is going to set up in Israel.
No, Paradise is one of the Heavens. It's not the Throne of God, and it's certainly not
an eschatological reference, either.
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Old 05-31-2014, 03:20 PM
 
18,172 posts, read 16,461,925 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Katzpur View Post
Well, thank you for that information. That was really very interesting. I'll have to look into that further. Do you, by any chance, have an explanation of why some Bibles (the KJV, for sure) separates the word "today" into "to day."
Basically the same word. Old English separated it. The ASV for example shows.

ASV Luke 23:43 And he said unto him, Verily I say unto thee, To-day shalt thou be with me in Paradise.
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