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The bible wasn't finalized until what year 300. The Catholic Community (the proto-orthodoxs) had started spreading the word WAY before the diverse early Christian groups decided what should, and what shouldn't, be in the Christian bible.
It wasn't like Jesus was walking around saying "be sure to put this part in there" or "are you writing this down".
It didn't happen like that...MAN decided which gospels to include.
I highly recommend looking into the heated political, spiritual, and historical battle from that 300 year period between Jesus and Constatine. The Catholics (Proto Orthodoxs) won that battle so of course their message defines what the current version of Christianity is.
Had one of the other half dozen to dozen groups won, we very well could have a drastically different Bible...that's how arbitrary it was.
to the bolded.
Also, as a former priest from.my last church pointed out, "an hour from now, you will not be able to repeat what I said here today or even remember all of it. How are we to believe that the gospel authors were able to write everything down years later with complete accuracy?"
Also, as a former priest from.my last church pointed out, "an hour from now, you will not be able to repeat what I said here today or even remember all of it. How are we to believe that the gospel authors were able to write everything down years later with complete accuracy?"
Also, as a former priest from.my last church pointed out, "an hour from now, you will not be able to repeat what I said here today or even remember all of it. How are we to believe that the gospel authors were able to write everything down years later with complete accuracy?"
Your priest likely wasn't healing the sick, raising the dead and walking on water. The one doing those things will naturally command more attention. His words and actions are more likely to be committed to memory.
Where in holy scripture does it say that Mary is another exception to that rule?
You know Catholicism isn't Sola Scriptura, so why would you ask that? The Immaculate Conception is Catholic Tradition. You already know this.
Look, I know you ARE Sola scriptural, and I am neither Catholic nor fundamentalist, but I know what each of your perspectives are.
Questioning like this when you already know the answer is kind of dishonest, isn't it? If you are really interested in why he believes in the Immaculate Conception, why not ask a real question as to how the Tradition came to be?
You might learn something, even if you disagree with it.
Where in holy scripture does it say that Mary is another exception to that rule?
You're asking the wrong question. We do not believe that every doctrine needs a proof text from Scripture.
However, Luke 1:28 strongly implies that the Blessed Virgin Mary is sinless when the angel addresses her: "ΧαῖÏε, κεχαÏιτωμÎνη, ὠΚÏÏιος μετὰ σοῦ" (Hail, full of grace, the Lord is with thee).
The Greek word "κεχαÏιτωμÎνη" (kecharitomene) is unique in that it is not found anywhere else in Scripture or even in Greek literature. This indicates that it is being used here as a name or title rather than as a descriptor. It's the feminine present perfect passive voice participle of the Greek verb "χαÏιτόω", and it means to have been endowed with grace to the greatest extent possible. That's why the Vulgate renders it as "gratia plena"; or in English, "full of grace".
Additionally, if you read on to verse 29, Mary was troubled at what the angel said and what it meant. In other words, it was no ordinary greeting for an ordinary person.
Your priest likely wasn't healing the sick, raising the dead and walking on water. The one doing those things will naturally command more attention. His words and actions are more likely to be committed to memory.
Cute in theory, but not in actuality what with human memory and individual perspectives. Speak to multiple people who witnessed any important event. You will get variations in the stories, always.
Even within the gospels we see that some people found certain things more important to set down than others.
You know Catholicism isn't Sola Scriptura, so why would you ask that? The Immaculate Conception is Catholic Tradition. You already know this.
Look, I know you ARE Sola scriptural, and I am neither Catholic nor fundamentalist, but I know what each of your perspectives are.
Questioning like this when you already know the answer is kind of dishonest, isn't it? If you are really interested in why he believes in the Immaculate Conception, why not ask a real question as to how the Tradition came to be?
You might learn something, even if you disagree with it.
I'm just saying that if any Catholic is going to convince someone of a doctrine to someone who is sola scriptura, they need to have scripture to back up their doctrine.
Men are fallible and can err in what they say to the people (including Popes).
Psa 118:8, It is better to trust in the LORD than to put confidence in man.
Psa 118:9, It is better to trust in the LORD than to put confidence in princes.
Men are fallible and can err in what they say to the people (including Popes).
Psa 118:8, It is better to trust in the LORD than to put confidence in man.
Psa 118:9, It is better to trust in the LORD than to put confidence in princes.
Agreed.
But surely you would agree that there are exceptions, since we know that the mere men who wrote Scripture were infallible.
Cute in theory, but not in actuality what with human memory and individual perspectives. Speak to multiple people who witnessed any important event. You will get variations in the stories, always.
Even within the gospels we see that some people found certain things more important to set down than others.
Cute?
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to the bolded.
