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I'm glad you started this thread. I don't have much of an answer for you, but when I read Mystic's post, I opened my Bible to read it...and read it again. Then went back to the beginning of chapter 2 to begin reading. I'm going to keep reading it... I'm interested in what you all have to say.
Is it possible for a sinful man to keep God’s holy law? Has anyone ever kept the Ten Commandments perfectly?
The Jews had the law, they heard the law, but they did not do the law, and therefore the Jews are condemned! (First verse (13) are for the Jews- last 2 verses are for the Gentiles)
Thus, the Jew sinned by failing to do what the law of Moses commanded him to do. The Gentile sinned by failing to do what his conscience told him to do.
It is all about the heart of man,do we just go through the motions as wanting to do right by the Lord and we fall short or is righteousness laid upon our hearts where we want to be obedient and walk in His ways.One who walks in the Lord's way does not fear the laws, but wants to be like Him.
Would God give a command that was impossible to fulfill?
I have found only two commands that are impossible for me to observe completely...Love the Lord with all your heart, and love your neighbor as yourself.
If I could just get those two down...
To the OP: I believe just as 'original sin' has been passed down through the generations...so has knowledge of good and evil (wasn't that what original sin was all about?).
Since every person inherits a knowledge of good and evil, each has a conscience that warns when we're about to commit another sin. I think Paul was stating that persons in the most remote reaches of this world - having never read Scriptures - would still have an inherent understanding of right and wrong.
Even with that understanding, humanity's fallen state would prevail so that everyone eventually does something wrong. Paul goes on in his letter to the Romans to state, "For all have sinned and fallen short of the glory of God."
13For it is not those who hear the law who are righteous in God's sight, but it is those who obey the law who will be declared righteous. 14(Indeed, when Gentiles, who do not have the law, do by nature things required by the law, they are a law for themselves, even though they do not have the law, 15since they show that the requirements of the law are written on their hearts, their consciences also bearing witness, and their thoughts now accusing, now even defending them.)
This sounds like a confirmation of none having an excuse.
13For it is not those who hear the law who are righteous in God's sight, but it is those who obey the law who will be declared righteous. 14(Indeed, when Gentiles, who do not have the law, do by nature things required by the law, they are a law for themselves, even though they do not have the law, 15since they show that the requirements of the law are written on their hearts, their consciences also bearing witness, and their thoughts now accusing, now even defending them.)
This sounds like a confirmation of none having an excuse.
It also sounds like the Blood of Jesus goes a whole lot farther than most Christians would like it to go. It breaks the inclusiveness of the Christian Jewish Scriptures, and transends ALL nations, and ALL peoples of the earth.
I suppose the great big club will just have to accept that good people might actually have a chance with Jesus too. Of course many still want that FRONT seat, so there will be wailing and nashing of teeth.
And no, I am not a Universalist. I am just a believer in God and subject to the Only King, Jesus the Christ.
It also sounds like the Blood of Jesus goes a whole lot farther than most Christians would like it to go. It breaks the inclusiveness of the Christian Jewish Scriptures, and transends ALL nations, and ALL peoples of the earth.
"Therefore by the deeds of the LAW there shall no flesh be JUSTIFIED in His sight."
VERSE 2. (Romans 2:13)
"For not the hearers of the LAW are just before God, but the doers of the LAW shall be JUSTIFIED."
The question is "How can both of these verses be true?" The answer is that:
Verse #1 refers to HOW WE ARE JUSTIFIED, while
verse #2 refers to WHO IS JUSTIFIED.
VERSE 1. HOW JUSTIFIED:
No one can be JUSTIFIED (forgiven) by keeping the law for even though we keep every commandment from this day forward, someone must pay for the sins we have already committed. We are justified by faith in Christ.
VERSE 2. WHO JUSTIFIED:
On the other hand, only the "DOERS OF THE LAW will be justified before God." Therefore it must follow that only the doers of the law have a genuine faith in Christ.
That is why John wrote:
"Here is a call for the endurance of the saints, those who KEEP THE COMMANDMENTS OF GOD, and the FAITH OF JESUS CHRIST." Rev 14:12
One cannot be good enough to merit justification, however once justified one must be good enough to not merit the destruction reserved for rebellious Christians.
Donna Kupp
James 1:22 But be ye doers of the word, and not hearers only, deceiving your own selves.
The Seven Deadly Deceptions Of Counterfeit Christianity freetruth.info
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