North American Urban Areas with over 3 million people, 2016 (United States, Canada, Mexico)

[NOLA101]

Originally Posted by Parhe

I've heard many times that America appears to have such high rates of poverty because it does not take into account assistance from the government, while most other developed countries do take that into account. Do y'all know if there is any truth to that, particularly in relation to Canada?

The U.S. doesn't have particularly high rates of poverty compared to other developed nations. It has very high income inequality, but lower income cohorts in the U.S. aren't notably poorer than in Canada, Germany, Australia, etc.

The main difference in the U.S. is that the rich are far richer than elsewhere. Everyone else is roughly the same as other "rich" countries.

[Soonhun]

Originally Posted by NOLA101

The U.S. doesn't have particularly high rates of poverty compared to other developed nations. It has very high income inequality, but lower income cohorts in the U.S. aren't notably poorer than in Canada, Germany, Australia, etc.

The main difference in the U.S. is that the rich are far richer than elsewhere. Everyone else is roughly the same as other "rich" countries.

Thanks for the reply. It seems I was primarily thinking of children in poverty (or I believe I was, based on a short Google search) which is, as you may been indicating, affected more by income inequality than actual improvishment. Since it is based on ##% of median/average income in a nation.

Been thinking, as a result, how two countries like Canada and the United States can be compared. Maybe determine the poverty rate based on a shared definition of poverty(?)

[Ant131531]

US has the wealth of an extremely developed first world nation, but the income inequality of a third world nation. Capitalism needs a permanent underclass to exist. Sadly, African Americans has become that permanent underclass.