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That seems to be the subtext for what's really on people's minds when it comes to rights in Arizona. First some people are denied their rights and then they're oppressed by the majority and usually what comes next is that the majority tries to get rid of those people either through expulsion or genocide.
My question is, has genocide ever been successful? I know recently it was/is attempted in Dafur, it's kind of happening in Zimbabwe and obviously the whole thing with WWII. But has it ever worked where a race or culture has been completely wiped out?
I think you may want to narrow your question down a little bit. For example, the term genocide itself came into existence fairly recently. The concept of minority rights is almost as recent. Are you trying to apply them to thousands of years of history?
To try to answer your question, languages and cultures cease to exist all the time but most often it is through natural processes of assimilation and intermarriage into larger surrounding cultures - not really though a determined and malevolent extermination. To see specific examples, try googling "extinct languages".
Willful extermination happens as well of course. No very recent examples come to my mind but Carthage was a prosperous empire in its day and it and its people have long ceased to exist.
I think you may want to narrow your question down a little bit. For example, the term genocide itself came into existence fairly recently. The concept of minority rights is almost as recent. Are you trying to apply them to thousands of years of history?
To try to answer your question, languages and cultures cease to exist all the time but most often it is through natural processes of assimilation and intermarriage into larger surrounding cultures - not really though a determined and malevolent extermination. To see specific examples, try googling "extinct languages".
Willful extermination happens as well of course. No very recent examples come to my mind but Carthage was a prosperous empire in its day and it and its people have long ceased to exist.
Thank you Mr. Marbles for your answer
I was referring to genocide through "determined and malevolent extermination". Like has any group of people been able to wipe a separate group of people completely off the face of the earth?
Perhaps the Aztec's wiped out some smaller tribes to the very last but were those tribes a "race"....With intermarriage the genetic lines would have continued....
Who knows how many civilizations simply died off.....inbreeding....predation from other non-human animals....disease...starvation from over-population....
Can someone familiar with history please answer the question?
Depends on what you mean by "ceased to exist". Many of the people conquered by the Romans had their cities destroyed and all of the men and boys massacred on the spot... but the women and girls would be sold into slavery.
So, while those cultures and nations ceased to exist, their genetic bloodlines continued to exist.
Recent studies have shown that even the Neanderthal bloodlines have managed to survive. Scientists found that between 1% to 4% of genes in all non-African populations are of Neanderthal origin.
So, even the supposedly-extinct Neanderthals haven't "ceased to exist"... and they were classed as a separate species.
So, basically, the answer to your question is no.
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Short answer: No.
