My 2007 MRI came and it states-
Findings:
Muliplantar,multisequence imaging of the left shoulder was performed without contrast.
Findings:
AC joint is well maintained. Rotator Cuff is normal. Biceps tendon is normal in signal and position throughout and the capsulolabral complex is intact. No joint effusion is identified.
Along the superomedial aspect of the humeral head, there is serpiginous focus of low-signal abnormality present. There is adjacent bony edema noted. The findings are most consistent with avascular necrosis. There is also some signal abnormality associated with the physis of the greater tuberosity which may be related to an occult injury. The glenoid is well maintained.
Impression:
Signal abnormality present about the humeral head as detailed above. This is favored to represent avascular necrosis. There is no evidence of cortical collapse at this time. There may also had been injury to the greater tuberosity with some irregularity about the normal physis. There is no evidence of fracture or displacement of the epiphysis.
Do I have Avascular Necrosis though? The Mri summery never states outright that I do. Would it seriously take 8 years for the bone to disintegrate? Wouldn’t it already have happened if I had this disease?
Also Is chronic sinusitis disqualifying?
A 2007 CT scan says I have chronic sinusitis in my right maxillary. It was among my shoulder dislocation records.
I didn't even know I had chronic sinusitis then and as far as I know I don't have it now.
Do I send it in even though it has nothing to do with my shoulder?
Thanks