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Because it's to debunk the theory that all members of the animal species are promiscuous. Because if we're supposed to be "evolved", why can't we even select and keep mates as graciously as the much less evolved swans do?
I truly believe STDs are God's/Darwin's/Allah's/"The Force's" way of bringing order to the universe.
I agree w/the second part - diseases are nature's population control.
I did find some articles about swans and promiscuity. Don't know about the reliability, but even Wikipedia says that male swans will mate outside of, while still maintaining, the pair bond.
I agree w/the second part - diseases are nature's population control.
I did find some articles about swans and promiscuity. Don't know about the reliability, but even Wikipedia says that male swans will mate outside of, while still maintaining, the pair bond.
The occurrence of social monogamy in vertebrates is directly related to the presence or absence of estrus (oestrus) ; the trait in which the female is sexually excited during ovulation. Estrus is a trait confined to placental mammals ; eutherians. This explains why social monogamy is so rare in these mammals since the estrus female will, generally, mate with any proximate male. Birds, which are notable for a high incidence of social monogamy, do not have the trait of estrus.
Seems it is those horny females who are to blame for the lack of monogamy....
The term 'homosexual' originated in 1868 in reference to repealing sodomy laws in Prussia.The law in question applied to men.
That doesn't mean that use of the word is exclusive to humans. Really, your ignorance is astounding. Do you truly not understand the use of Latin prefixes?
The article I read about this superbug said it's primarily in Southeast Asia, and Japan.
So when it arrives in the USA it will most likely appear first in the community of men who take sex tours to Asia. Likely then spread among people with very loose sexual practices.
That doesn't mean that use of the word is exclusive to humans. Really, your ignorance is astounding. Do you truly not understand the use of Latin prefixes?
Quote: "derived from Greek ὁμός homos, 'same' (not related to the Latin homo, 'man', as in Homo sapiens)"
But the term as invented,applied to sex between men....not to same sex.
A question,WHY did the inventor choose to make a bastardised word from two different languages?
Any thoughts?
Using the greek term 'Homos' would leave one with 'exual'....I have not yet found the Latin definition of this term.
However IF one uses the Latin 'Homo'(meaning man) and the Latin term 'sexualis'(relating to sex) it fits in quite well with the inventor of the words writings....
But the term as invented,applied to sex between men....not to same sex.
A question,WHY did the inventor choose to make a bastardised word from two different languages?
Any thoughts?
Using the greek term 'Homos' would leave one with 'exual'....I have not yet found the Latin definition of this term.
However IF one uses the Latin 'Homo'(meaning man) and the Latin term 'sexualis'(relating to sex) it fits in quite well with the inventor of the words writings....
There are a lot of words in English that are combined with Latin.
This is supposedly a combination of a Greek word(well not actually...the Greek is 'Homos') and a Latin word.
But the thing is,if the word is all Latin,it fits what the inventor of the term was writing about(Sodomy laws dealing with men.)
Quite interesting that the way people have ASSUMED the term to mean is based upon a translation thirty or so years AFTER the original writing was published.
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