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I recently read the Hebrew Bible and the Talmud and found lots of violence and the call of stoning people to death for breaking Jewish laws such as the Sabbath, homosexuality, adultery, etc. yet people in the west and the media only bash Islam for the Sharia when the Hebrew God tells people to do the same thing. Why is that? Maybe perhaps the Jews do not follow their God's order while some Muslims do, or media bashing against Muslims?
Christianity nobody can complain because Jesus spread the message of love, peace and forgiveness.
He saved a prostitute from being stoned to death because he also said everybody has sinned.
Buddhism has similar religious founder and philosophy.
Unlike Islam, Judaism's Oral Torah has mitigated the harsh laws found in the Written Torah. Under halacha (Jewish law, the equivalent of Islamic sharia), the conditions needed to enforce laws like stoning unruly children or Sabbath violators are practically impossible to fulfill, even though they remain on the books. In fact a famous Talmudic passage says that a court that sentences more than 1 person to death every 70 years is a bloody court. In my opinion, this shows the humanity and compassion of Judaism compared to Islam.
Unfortunately, the OP subscribes to the Christian misconception that Judaism = The Old Testament, i.e. that it's a system of laws designed to be impossible to fulfill, whose sole purpose is to prove that a man-God must sacrifice himself so that humans no longer have to live by such a system.
Unlike Islam, Judaism's Oral Torah has mitigated the harsh laws found in the Written Torah. Under halacha (Jewish law, the equivalent of Islamic sharia), the conditions needed to enforce laws like stoning unruly children or Sabbath violators are practically impossible to fulfill, even though they remain on the books. In fact a famous Talmudic passage says that a court that sentences more than 1 person to death every 70 years is a bloody court. In my opinion, this shows the humanity and compassion of Judaism compared to Islam.
Unfortunately, the OP subscribes to the Christian misconception that Judaism = The Old Testament, i.e. that it's a system of laws designed to be impossible to fulfill, whose sole purpose is to prove that a man-God must sacrifice himself so that humans no longer have to live by such a system.
If a bonafide Madhab of Shariah is followed, Shariah law is saying the same thing. "Let him who is withot sin cast the first stone" The proof of guilt for "Crimes" such as Adultry, etc require a minimum of 4 witnesses describing the act in such strong detail, the only way they could know such things they would have to have been a participant---Which would disqualify them of being a witness, as for those "Crimes" the witness has to be a person of the highest moral character (ie: Without sin) Also under Shariah the "Exectioners" are to be the witnesses. You have the same thing being said--"Let Him who is without sin, cast the first stone"
What is depicted as Shariah, is not Shariah as defined under the codes of Islamic Jurisprudence.
I recently read the Hebrew Bible and the Talmud and found lots of violence and the call of stoning people to death for breaking Jewish laws such as the Sabbath, homosexuality, adultery, etc. yet people in the west and the media only bash Islam for the Sharia when the Hebrew God tells people to do the same thing. Why is that? Maybe perhaps the Jews do not follow their God's order while some Muslims do, or media bashing against Muslims?
Christianity nobody can complain because Jesus spread the message of love, peace and forgiveness.
He saved a prostitute from being stoned to death because he also said everybody has sinned.
Buddhism has similar religious founder and philosophy.
Told.
It's because this is the 21st century. The Bible was written roughly 1445 BC to about 200-300 AD. They developed out of such practices, telling people to stop stoning people over not following the law. Christianity, yes definitely, but even Judaism was affected somewhat by all this.
Islam, however, didn't get the memo, and continues to do crap like this. And not just to believers, but to people with nothing to do with them. In short, they're jerks. Jerks and barbarians don't have license to do whatever in this world. We stand up to bullies, so they back down.
Perhaps something to consider is that Islam is still - at least as practiced by many adherents - in its infancy. While Judaism and Christianity have both had plenty of time to move away from their violent pasts for the most part, Islam - again, in its more extremist sects - is the youngest of the trio and still maturing, I suppose. There are extremists in all three, but Jews and Christians tend to not take it to a violent extreme anymore.
I recently read the Hebrew Bible and the Talmud and found lots of violence and the call of stoning people to death for breaking Jewish laws such as the Sabbath, homosexuality, adultery, etc. yet people in the west and the media only bash Islam for the Sharia when the Hebrew God tells people to do the same thing. Why is that? Maybe perhaps the Jews do not follow their God's order while some Muslims do, or media bashing against Muslims?
Christianity nobody can complain because Jesus spread the message of love, peace and forgiveness.
He saved a prostitute from being stoned to death because he also said everybody has sinned.
Buddhism has similar religious founder and philosophy.
If a bonafide Madhab of Shariah is followed, Shariah law is saying the same thing. "Let him who is withot sin cast the first stone" The proof of guilt for "Crimes" such as Adultry, etc require a minimum of 4 witnesses describing the act in such strong detail, the only way they could know such things they would have to have been a participant---Which would disqualify them of being a witness, as for those "Crimes" the witness has to be a person of the highest moral character (ie: Without sin) Also under Shariah the "Exectioners" are to be the witnesses. You have the same thing being said--"Let Him who is without sin, cast the first stone"
What is depicted as Shariah, is not Shariah as defined under the codes of Islamic Jurisprudence.
Of course, we know that there are many opinions of what it means to practice Shariah, right? What happens if one does not agree with you here? It's up to the interpretation of the individual, correct?
Of course, we know that there are many opinions of what it means to practice Shariah, right? What happens if one does not agree with you here? It's up to the interpretation of the individual, correct?
Not in terms of Shariah. Shariah is very specific. It is a legal system based on many things not Just the Qur'an. It developed nearly 200 years after the death of Muhammad and the laws formed in a manner very similar to US law. To say Shariah is based upon Islam is like saying US law is based upon Christianity. Like US law the legal system is into parts those trained ln Prosecution and those trained in Defense. It is a full court system much like US law. Complete with Lawyers, Judges and Juries. There is also a branch of legislation for establishing local laws and ordinances. A much more democratic system than what many non-Muslims believe.
Using just the Hanafi madhab as an example of How Shariah developed.
Quote:
Emergence of Schools of law
The earliest legal schools came into being as the circles of legal scholars who were authorities on Quran and Hadith and engaged in legal discussions and debates. Most of the scholars had their personal schools which flourished in major cities of Medina, Basra, Kufa, Damascus and Baghdad. It was common among the scholars of law to study under several masters and then combine the methodology and legal doctrines of the masters in their own legal practice.
Hanafi legal methodology and the approach of the School to Usul-al-Fiqh
The legal rulings of all the Islamic Schools of law are based on the Quranic principles either in letter or in spirit or both. The Quran contains fairly substantial legislative material covering inheritance, marriage, divorce, laws of war, and several other civil and criminal issues. To solve further problems jurists resorted to the practices and words of the Prophet as contained in his Sunnah and after him, to the legal verdicts of those Companions who had been close enough to the Prophet to know what the Prophet had done had he been present at the moment. The Sunnah of the Prophet and the Companions was seen to emanate from the Quran itself as it was the principles of the Quran that they adopted and emulated in their lives. The Sunnah thus provided with valuable precedents in the legal practice. In an environment when a large number of Ahadith were being fabricated, the method for establishing the authenticity of a Hadith as adopted by Imam Abu Hanifa and other leading scholars required dual check, first regarding the credibility, experience, memory and righteousness of the transmitters transmitting in an unbroken chain and second regarding the content of the Hadith.
The Quran and Sunnah however did not offer the solution to every specific case that ever came before the community. The jurists in that case had recourse to such legal methods as Ijma (consensus) and Qiyas (analogical deduction). Ijma refers to the process of obtaining consensus regarding a particular legal problem among the Companions, their successors or all the mujtahids of any one of the future generations. A Hanafi scholar Shashi, writing in the eighth century CE, considers the consensus among few mujtahids accompanied by silence or absence of objection by all other Mujtahids a valid Ijma. The concept of Qiyas is of analogical deduction. If no direct solution is found regarding a particular case in Quran or Sunnah, the jurist identifies similar cases in these sources and if valid analogy is established between the two cases, the solution of the first case can be applied to the other. An example is that of permissibility of drinking date wine. The jurist finds out that the grape wine is prohibited because of its intoxicating affect. Since the harmful affect is also present in the date wine, it will also be prohibited as well. Apart from Ijma and Qiyas, Hanafi School introduced the concept of Istihsan (Juristic preference) as Maliki madhab introduced the method of istislah/maslah (public interest) to solve legal problems.
The Full study of even one of the 4 Madhabs takes years to complete. The Hanafi Madhab is subject to local change based upon local opinion. Like US law the laws in the hanafi madhab adapt to the changes. Like US law it is quite secular and Democratic.
Not in terms of Shariah. Shariah is very specific. It is a legal system based on many things not Just the Qur'an. It developed nearly 200 years after the death of Muhammad and the laws formed in a manner very similar to US law. To say Shariah is based upon Islam is like saying US law is based upon Christianity. Like US law the legal system is into parts those trained ln Prosecution and those trained in Defense. It is a full court system much like US law. Complete with Lawyers, Judges and Juries. There is also a branch of legislation for establishing local laws and ordinances. A much more democratic system than what many non-Muslims believe.
Using just the Hanafi madhab as an example of How Shariah developed.
The Full study of even one of the 4 Madhabs takes years to complete. The Hanafi Madhab is subject to local change based upon local opinion. Like US law the laws in the hanafi madhab adapt to the changes. Like US law it is quite secular and Democratic.
Of course, Shariah can be implemented in different ways, correct? The way I understand it, there is some disagreement on how to implement it, right? That's why some Islamic countries are much more conservative than others?
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