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I understand English is one of the few languages that has contractions and that they can be difficult, because there are a lot of them, they work in funny ways, but that's generally elementary knowledge. But honestly, why is it that SO many people out there, some of them, very intelligent people who are able to argue a great point, do not know the difference between it's and its? Perhaps it's that I place too much emphasis on correct grammar, but once I see a misspelled word, improper use of a word, or bad grammar I cringe. The way I was taught, if you're going to use it's, sound it out and if you can change it to "it is" and it still makes sense then you're using it the correct way. I see it's used in possession everywhere. Newspapers, movies, student papers, articles, very commonly used on C-D as well. So what's the issue here? Are people not well read enough? Most published books show the correct way to use it's vs its. Do schools miss this point when they're teaching students? Do people just not care? Do they forget? I'm sure there are a lot of other common grammar or misused word mistakes that people make, but nothing is so common or as annoying to me as the it's and its.
Also, I'd say the next most misused one is who's and whose. Same difference possession for whose and contraction for who's. One that still kinda gets me though is who and whom.
I have trouble with this sometimes. It's for it is, and It's for "she felt bad for it's suffering," makes sense to me, but sometimes, when I think it is right, my spellcheck doesn't like the apostrophy.
Basically, it's not on my top 10 things to worry about.
I have trouble with this sometimes. It's for it is, and It's for "she felt bad for it's suffering," makes sense to me, but sometimes, when I think it is right, my spellcheck doesn't like the apostrophy.
Basically, it's not on my top 10 things to worry about.
If it is possessive, use its. "She felt bad for its suffering". Like I was taught, if you change it's to it is and it still makes sense, then you're correct. "She felt bad for it is suffering" Well that changes the context altogether, now it is currently suffering, not in the past, and that would also make "She felt bad" incorrect. If it's in present tense it would be, "She feels bad for it is suffering" Maybe I know too much about English and grammar.
I don't really know why the difference would trip someone up since, to me anyway, they're used quite differently.
Anyway, how about people who use the terms "could of" or "would of" instead of the contractions of could have "could've" or would have "would've"?
That gets me too! It's not could of, it's could have, or could've. The fools!
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