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Divorce for MOST reasons is positively a Biblical sin. The most widely used reason for divorce is "irreconcilable differences," which is definitely a sin by Biblical standards.
That is not true at all.
Divorce itself is NOT sin. It is permissible again in certain circumstances. Even if you do divorce and it's not for those reasons, you have not sin until you have gone to marry or fornicate with someone else. Biblically, it is okay for you to go back to your ex-wife after divorce and re-marry if you divorced.
2) Somebody being divorce doesn't not mean they are in sin (adultery). There are two permissible reasons to divorce.
3) Homosexuality is a focused for some, but the reason why it's addressed more is because you don't see bank robbers trying to be accepted by the church, or having bank robber pride parades. Much of the conversation about this topic comes from the response to homosexuals themselves.
4) I agree it's not different than any other sin, but how often do people try to justify those other sins? Your argument would only be valid if the support for other sins were equal.
Guess you didn't read carefully. Is that the way you read your Bible, too?
Quote:
"Why it isn't biblical to divorce your spouse for OTHER THAN ADULTERY."
Wardendresden post #151
Or perhaps it is because you are divorced and remarried for reasons other than adultery--making it far more religiously politic to point a finger at the GBLT community.
DIVORCE, IMO is the reason for the decline in the American family and its values--not homosexuality. Homosexuality has not increased in several millennia, but in America divorce certainly has.
Divorce itself is NOT sin. It is permissible again in certain circumstances. Even if you do divorce and it's not for those reasons, you have not sin until you have gone to marry or fornicate with someone else. Biblically, it is okay for you to go back to your ex-wife after divorce and re-marry if you divorced.
Certainly it is. Adultry is the only Biblical reason that justifies divorce. Look it up.
I'm not. I asked where in the Bible did it say that Adam and Eve had a daughter? It says they had a daughter AFTER Cain was married. What is your point? The poster tried to imply that incest happened and he never proved it, but instead of focusing on why he is wrong, you want to attack me because I asked a simple question. I guess that's your "agape" love.
You did not specify in the question that it should be before the Cain incident so common sense, courtesy and humility would at least have you acknowledging that. Incest is NOT dismissed since there is no mention of daughters before the Cain incident, since that culture does not pay particular attention to women and only the principle participants are mentioned. Given the narrative that Adam and Eve were the first humans, the only alternative to incest, though, is bestiality. Better?
NOwherehaveI indicated that there is "no standard." I have asked you to conform to the standards of a society in which we have said that there is no valid reason for prohibition in purely religious injunctions. You have not done so and seem to be avoiding the idea that you should do so to support any civil sanctions against committed gay relationships with the same rights and privileges as heterosexual relationships.
The civil standards are freedom so long as there is no demonstrable harm, and MY faith standards (which you do not meet) is that there be shown concern for the well-being of EVERYone in any particular situation.
I don't conform to societal standards so I am not going to ever agree with what ever society comes up with. That is the difference between me and you. You apparently live in the world and accept the sinful that goes along with it. Jesus didn't come to get along with the world, he came to transform it.
I can come up with a lot of reasons to justify this, which I have already done in this thread, but at this point it seems you have become combative since I challenged your belief system. That is between you and God.
Divorce itself is NOT sin. It is permissible again in certain circumstances. Even if you do divorce and it's not for those reasons, you have not sin until you have gone to marry or fornicate with someone else. Biblically, it is okay for you to go back to your ex-wife after divorce and re-marry if you divorced.
Good point. Now, what do you think is the case in the vast majority of the divorces and remarriages accepted by most churches?
You did not specify in the question that it should be before the Cain incident so common sense, courtesy and humility would at least have you acknowledging that. Incest is NOT dismissed since there is no mention of daughters before the Cain incident, since that culture does not pay particular attention to women and only the principle participants are mentioned. Given the narrative that Adam and Eve were the first humans, the only alternative to incest, though, is bestiality. Better?
So that means you don't know if there was or was not a daughter right?
So if you don't then again, how do you prove incest? To say there was incest, would be an assumption and there is nothing in the Bible that supports it. Now if you can show how his wife was actually his sister, then fine, but it's not in there and that's all I was saying.
You certainly are spending a lot of time responding to me. Again, conviction makes you feel that way. Take it up with God.
Certainly it is. Adultry is the only Biblical reason that justifies divorce. Look it up.
But you don't believe in the Bible so why does this even matter to you? Why are you even doing this?
And again you are wrong:
1 Corinthians 7:10-15
Quote:
10 Now to the married I command, yet not I but the Lord: A wife is not to depart from her husband. 11 But even if she does depart, let her remain unmarried or be reconciled to her husband. And a husband is not to divorce his wife.
12 But to the rest I, not the Lord, say: If any brother has a wife who does not believe, and she is willing to live with him, let him not divorce her. 13 And a woman who has a husband who does not believe, if he is willing to live with her, let her not divorce him. 14 For the unbelieving husband is sanctified by the wife, and the unbelieving wife is sanctified by the husband; otherwise your children would be unclean, but now they are holy. 15 But if the unbeliever departs, let him depart; a brother or a sister is not under bondage in such cases.But God has called us to peace.
Except the sexual sins affects the person like no other sin. I think that's part of the reason people take more offense to this particular sin than stealing, murder, etc.
1 Corinthians 6:18 - Flee immorality. Every other sin that a man commits is outside the body, but the immoral man sins against his own body.
But I am looking for people to explain why homosexuality should be considered as valid.
If you can make an argument without referencing a work of fiction, maybe the conversation can move forward.
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