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Given the following facts, all easily verifyable with a minimum of research, how do fundamentalist continue to adhere to a strict literalist interpretation of the Bible?
1) The earliest historical Biblical documents we currently have are the Dead Sea Scrolls (approximately 200 BC - 70 AD) Given that the OT dates from about 1400-1500 BC, how do we verify the acuracy of the copies and translations made in the interim? Given that much of the OT was translated into Aramaic around 400-500 BC, how do we know the Scrolls themselves were not translated back into Hebrew from an Aramaic source?
2) The earliest full edition of the Bible, with all "accepted" books in the OT and NT is likely the Latin Vulgate (St Jerome) with a first edition dating of 383BC. A council OF MEN in the early Roman Catholic Church (a Christian denomination routinely derided by fundamentalists) determined what would be included in the Bible and what would not.
3) Through the centuries, MAN has struggled (hopefully guided by the Holy Spirit) to research and identify the most faithful translation of the Bible. Revisions were made, efforts to be faithful to translate from the earliest available Hebrew and Greek text were made. All of this requires an acknowledgement that versions of the Bible may not be perfect, may not be as faithful to God's intent as we desire.
4) Fundamentalism and a literalist interpretation of the Bible as a movement only dates back to the 19th century (the Niagara Bible Conference of 1897). It was not until the 1910 general assembly of the Presbyterian Church that the Bible as the "inerrant Word of God" became a formalized doctrine.
I am genuinely curious. Given the above, how do fundamentalists/literalists out there decide which is the correct translation of the Bible to use? If the translation you choose was created over the centuries(as all versions of the Bible are), by MEN who who sought to find the most faithful translation of the Bible - an implicit acknowledgement on their part that the Bible as a book/translation is imperfect - how do you then make the leap to it being perfect now? It seems somewhat similar to the Mormon church deciding (by divine revelation no less) that blacks could be equal in their church about a century after the U.S. government did. I've always asked Mormons "How did the government beat God to the punch?"
Let's face it. The Bible IS the Divinely inspired Word of God. But it was originally written by, and subsequently translated through an imperfect conduit in the form of MAN. Through the centuries, man has struggled (guided by the Holy Spirit) to be as faithful to God's intent as possible; and we STILL STRUGGLE today. How can you be so certain that your current translation is perfect? To claim that God somehow ensured it was perfect would remove man's free will, which goes against scripture.
I firmly believe that when God sees Christian men and women struggling to find the Truth in both Faith and science, he is smiling. It is true that we may not, indeed will not, always get it right. But searching, trying to be open to the Holy Spirit, is far more likely to bring us closer to God than marching lock step to literalist dogma. The latter, as I have pointed out on several occassions, leads to a presumption to know the Mind of God, and passing judgement on others - which again goes against the very scripture you hold dear.
4) Fundamentalism and a literalist interpretation of the Bible as a movement only dates back to the 19th century (the Niagara Bible Conference of 1897). It was not until the 1910 general assembly of the Presbyterian Church that the Bible as the "inerrant Word of God" became a formalized doctrine.
Actually the apostle Paul stated this around 60 some A.D.:
2Ti 3:16-17 All scripture is inspired by God,
and is beneficial for teaching, for exposure, for correction,
for discipline in righteousness, (17) that the man of God
may be equipped, fitted out for every good act."
I would suggest he beat that assemply by a few years, wouldn't you?
But maybe you mean something by "inerrant" which is different from "inspired"?
There are a few scribal errors made over the years but the scribes put corrections in the margins. But these few errors do not in any way destroy the overall truth of the Scriptures. So you have Qere "what is read" and Ketib "what is written."
That's an interesting verse. It actually reveals that even Paul suggested using the Bible as a guide rather than as an absolute. It is certainly inspired and is beneficial for teaching, etc..., but even he does not claim it is necessary.
Very interesting.
It'd be nice if someone would answer the questions. Some nice mental gymnastics going on to duck and dodge, but the OP poses an important question at the heart of Christianity.
Let's face it. The Bible IS the Divinely inspired Word of God. But it was originally written by, and subsequently translated through an imperfect conduit in the form of MAN. Through the centuries, man has struggled (guided by the Holy Spirit) to be as faithful to God's intent as possible; and we STILL STRUGGLE today. How can you be so certain that your current translation is perfect? To claim that God somehow ensured it was perfect would remove man's free will, which goes against scripture.
I firmly believe that when God sees Christian men and women struggling to find the Truth in both Faith and science, he is smiling. It is true that we may not, indeed will not, always get it right. But searching, trying to be open to the Holy Spirit, is far more likely to bring us closer to God than marching lock step to literalist dogma. The latter, as I have pointed out on several occassions, leads to a presumption to know the Mind of God, and passing judgement on others - which again goes against the very scripture you hold dear.
and how would you know this? what is your authority- what is this belief based on? hmmmmm??
That's an interesting verse. It actually reveals that even Paul suggested using the Bible as a guide rather than as an absolute. It is certainly inspired and is beneficial for teaching, etc..., but even he does not claim it is necessary.
Very interesting.
It'd be nice if someone would answer the questions. Some nice mental gymnastics going on to duck and dodge, but the OP poses an important question at the heart of Christianity.
Me thinks you misunderstand Paul.
To Paul the Word of God was everything.
2Ti 2:2 And what things you hear from me through many witnesses, these commit to faithful men, who shall be competent to teach others also."
1Ti 4:16 Attend to yourself and to the teaching. Be persisting in them, for in doing this you will save yourself as well as those hearing you."
I agree that the overall Truth of Scripture remains. But in acknowledging "errors", you must then acknowledge man's interpretation. You cannot acknoledge errors and in the same breath insist on "inerrant truth". Acknowledging a differentiation between "what is read" and "what is written" in and of itself forces an acknowledgement of INTERPRETATION. Again, man has through the centuries and will continue to the end of time to try to interpret Scripture so as come closer to the Holy Spirit and do the Lord's will.
I agree that the overall Truth of Scripture remains. But in acknowledging "errors", you must then acknowledge man's interpretation. You cannot acknoledge errors and in the same breath insist on "inerrant truth". Again, man has through the centuries and will continue to the end of time to try to interpret Scripture so as come closer to the Holy Spirit and do the Lord's will.
You know what is literal and what isn't? Please tell me how do you know what parts of the bible to take literal?
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