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Old 01-12-2010, 12:15 PM
 
17,966 posts, read 15,965,181 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by sciotamicks View Post
You are very wrong in your translation.
Where are you getting this from anyway?

the last two words of the Hebrew are "Die and Die"

The strict Hebrew is "tree of knowledge, good and evil, eat it and die".
To die shall you be dying

"The key to the solution of our difficulty lies in the notable expression which our translators have rendered "surely die." In the Hebrew it is unlike anything which we have in English. It reads literally, if we accept current standards of translation, "to die shall you be dying." That is, the verb "die" is repeated in two different forms. First it is in the so-called "construct infinitive." Our infinitive is "to die." Being in the "construct state" shows that it is limited or restricted in its meaning by the following word. In the phrase "the word of the Lord," for instance, the word "word" is in the construct state because not every one's word is intended, but only the Lord's. So here, the thought of dying is restricted by the following verb "you shall be dying." From this we gather that it is only in a restricted sense that Adam would die that day. "To die shall you be dying" brings before us a process of death, culminating, indeed, in actual death, but of indefinite duration in its operation.

"The same phrase is used in a similar sense in Genesis 29:7; 1 Samuel 14:44; 22:16; 1 Kings 2:37,42; 2 Kings 1:4,16; Jeremiah 26:8; Ezekiel 3:18; 33:8,14.

"The most interesting of these occurrences is 1 Kings 2:37, where we have the identical statement made to Shimei by Solomon in case he should dare to leave the confines of Jerusalem. "In the day...to die shall you be dying" gives us a perfect parallel case. And, like Adam, Shimei transgressed. And like him he did not die on the day he crossed the brook Kidron, but went to Gath after his servants and returned. This would not be so notable if Solomon had offered some excuse for not keeping his word and sending after him to fulfill his threat. Indeed, Solomon reiterates his previous words, not omitting the phrase "in the day" and proposes to carry it into execution several days afterward! It is evident that his understanding of this phrase was quite different from the impression conveyed by our usual English translation.
"Such evidence as this is valuable—far more valuable than the labored efforts of Hebrew scholarship. Learning is ever lame, but here is evidence of Solomon's interpretation of this phrase—and how many would dispute his knowledge of Hebrew?"
A.E. Knoch, Unsearchable Riches, vol.54, p.280)
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Old 01-12-2010, 12:50 PM
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by sciotamicks View Post
Dear Eusebius,

Did not God say to Adam, "But, from the tree of the knowledge of good and evil you shall not eat, for in the day that you eat from it you shall surely die."

Did he die that very day that he ate?

No he did not.
Even if you use this translation,it doesn`t mean he would die right away.
I know that I SHALL surely die. You also,SHALL surely die.We all SHALL surely die. Our bodies are dying right now. It`s a slow process. The moment he obtained knowledge,he was given physical life and started to die.
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Old 01-12-2010, 01:37 PM
 
Location: Seattle, Wa
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Dear Eusebius,

You certainly are a fan of Koch, the universalist. Unfortunately, he is in error and relies on pure imposition of his ideas into the text. Using a common, literal interpretation, when Adam ate the fruit, he should have died physically that day. Did Adam die the same day he ate the fruit? No, he did not. There are three possibilities.

First, God lied to Adam. We know that God cannot lie, so this cannot be the case.

There are two other possible alternatives from which you must choose.

The first is that God did not mean physical death at all, but spiritual. When Adam ate the fruit, he sinned, which caused separation between him and God, or spiritual death.

The other alternative, which is what you present, is that although the sin did not bring about instant death, it did bring about gradual death, making man susceptible to death. Adam and Eve, by their expulsion from the Garden of Eden, became vulnerable to death.

This death is purely covenantal, just as Christ's sacrifice was purely covenantal, and one must eneter into covenant to be granted eternal life.

For in Adam brought death in the spirit, but Christ brought life in the spirit.

Roman 5:17 For if by one man's offence death reigned by one; much more they which receive abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness shall reign in life by one, Jesus Christ.)

Quote:
Oh dear. Let's look at Ephesians 2:1,5 first and see it they talk of spiritual death:

Eph 2:1 And you, being dead to your offenses and sins,
Eph 2:5 (we also being dead to the offenses and the lusts), vivifies us together in Christ (in grace are you saved!)"
Eph 2:2 Wherein in time past ye walked according to the course of this world, according to the prince of the power of the air, the spirit that now worketh in the children of disobedience: Among whom also we all had our conversation in times past in the lusts of our flesh, fulfilling the desires of the flesh and of the mind; and were by nature the children of wrath, even as others. But God, who is rich in mercy, for his great love wherewith he loved us. Even when we were dead in sins, hath quickened us together with Christ, (by grace ye are saved And hath raised [us] up together, and made [us] sit together in heavenly [places] in Christ Jesus:

The Death is Spiritual

WHen Christ was separated, spiritually with God He cried out:

"Why has you forsaken me". This is clear cut.

Quote:
But we are not under law. Death was being dished out even when there was no law, Paul said so in Romans 5.
I agree, we aren't in Christ, but without Christ, where are you?

In Death.

Figurative death? Please define your understanding of it. Thanks.

Also, you answered my quesiton of Death and Hades, although I find in error, but that is fine, but what about the Sea?

What is that symbolically representing?
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Old 01-12-2010, 01:54 PM
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by sciotamicks View Post
Also, you answered my quesiton of Death and Hades, although I find in error, but that is fine, but what about the Sea?

What is that symbolically representing?
Depends. What's the context?
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Old 01-12-2010, 04:11 PM
 
Location: Seattle, Wa
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Eusebius View Post
Depends. What's the context?
Rev 20..thanks
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Old 01-12-2010, 05:57 PM
 
Location: Somewhere
6,370 posts, read 7,029,981 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by sciotamicks View Post
Dear Eusebius,

You certainly are a fan of Koch, the universalist. Unfortunately, he is in error and relies on pure imposition of his ideas into the text. Using a common, literal interpretation, when Adam ate the fruit, he should have died physically that day. Did Adam die the same day he ate the fruit? No, he did not. There are three possibilities.

First, God lied to Adam. We know that God cannot lie, so this cannot be the case.

There are two other possible alternatives from which you must choose.

The first is that God did not mean physical death at all, but spiritual. When Adam ate the fruit, he sinned, which caused separation between him and God, or spiritual death.

The other alternative, which is what you present, is that although the sin did not bring about instant death, it did bring about gradual death, making man susceptible to death. Adam and Eve, by their expulsion from the Garden of Eden, became vulnerable to death.

This death is purely covenantal, just as Christ's sacrifice was purely covenantal, and one must eneter into covenant to be granted eternal life.

For in Adam brought death in the spirit, but Christ brought life in the spirit.

Roman 5:17 For if by one man's offence death reigned by one; much more they which receive abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness shall reign in life by one, Jesus Christ.)



Eph 2:2 Wherein in time past ye walked according to the course of this world, according to the prince of the power of the air, the spirit that now worketh in the children of disobedience: Among whom also we all had our conversation in times past in the lusts of our flesh, fulfilling the desires of the flesh and of the mind; and were by nature the children of wrath, even as others. But God, who is rich in mercy, for his great love wherewith he loved us. Even when we were dead in sins, hath quickened us together with Christ, (by grace ye are saved And hath raised [us] up together, and made [us] sit together in heavenly [places] in Christ Jesus:

The Death is Spiritual

WHen Christ was separated, spiritually with God He cried out:

"Why has you forsaken me". This is clear cut.



I agree, we aren't in Christ, but without Christ, where are you?

In Death.

Figurative death? Please define your understanding of it. Thanks.

Also, you answered my quesiton of Death and Hades, although I find in error, but that is fine, but what about the Sea?

What is that symbolically representing?
Adam did die the same day they ate the fruit. It was less than 1000 years. As Peter tells us - a day is like a thousand years and a thousand years like a day with God.
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Old 01-12-2010, 06:12 PM
 
Location: Seattle, Wa
5,303 posts, read 6,434,005 times
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Christ died for all men (1 John 2:2), but the benefit of that atoning death is applied only to those who accept Christ (1 John 2:22-23). By accepting Christ, they are of the Truth, and they have both Father and Son.
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Old 01-12-2010, 06:45 PM
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by trettep View Post
Adam did die the same day they ate the fruit. It was less than 1000 years. As Peter tells us - a day is like a thousand years and a thousand years like a day with God.
Exactly ...
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Old 01-12-2010, 07:10 PM
 
Location: Seattle, Wa
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Ironmaw1776 View Post
Exactly ...

So you and Trettep are OEC?
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Old 01-12-2010, 07:50 PM
 
7,374 posts, read 8,759,564 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by sciotamicks View Post
So you and Trettep are OEC?
OEC?
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