"Mandate"???

[dman72]

Originally Posted by jmqueen

since when did a plurality of less than a million popular votes become a "mandate"?

Since GW Bush claimed one after winning by less in 2004, and tried to use it to privatize Social Security.

Next question?

Should have been the end of thread, no reason to continue after this.

[Wayland Woman]

Originally Posted by natalie469

Why do you need to cry voter fraud because your guy didn't win. How about people just didn't like Romney or trust him. You can't run as a conservative in the primaries and then run as a moderate in the general election. That raised a lot of red flags of who the real Romney was and how exactly he would run this country. Plus he had the neo cons as his advisers which indicated he would be just another puppet like Bush. Why would we want someone like that in the white house again.

The trouble with the Republicans right now who are seeking reasons why they lost the election is they are listening to the people who voted for Romney when they should be listening to those us us who didn't vote for him.

[florida.bob]

Originally Posted by Redraven

I heard one of the talking heads this morning stating that obama now has a "mandate" from the American people.
"MANDATE"?? since when did a plurality of less than a million popular votes become a "mandate"?
I suppose he also won in a "landslide"...
Yeah, right.
I see NO "mandate".
If he had received 60% or more of the popular vote, maybe.

The BIG winners of the election were the Repubs. They will get all the positive benefits of the Obama Presidency and be able to whine and moan about Obama being reelected. AKA, the best of both worlds!!