Please register to participate in our discussions with 2 million other members - it's free and quick! Some forums can only be seen by registered members. After you create your account, you'll be able to customize options and access all our 15,000 new posts/day with fewer ads.
We don't live in the vacuum of liberal fanatasyland.
No, we don't. But we apparently do live in a world where conservatives are afraid to answer hypothetical questions.
Quote:
Originally Posted by InformedConsent
You're deliberately avoiding my rebuttal hypothetical questions because you know they destroy your logic.
I'm ignoring them completely until such time as you answer the question posed. They are after all neither hypothetical (the answers to them are objective and obvious) nor are they in rebuttal to my question since neither of them have anything to do with the question of fairness.
The first question is difficult to answer as most people simply don't know that Heimlich thingy. Now, if people knew it and chose not to help, they should be punished of course. Just like with your second question. I guess it's called non-assistance of a person in danger or duty to rescue. It depends on the country, in Germany for instance not helping a person in danger is an criminal offense legally speaking.
But it isn't a criminal offense in the U.S., while NOT being a tax slave if one is actually a productive member of society, is a criminal offense in the U.S.
Why is the former form of societal help specifically only voluntary, while the other (tax slavery) isn't?
But it isn't a criminal offense in the U.S., while NOT being a tax slave if one is actually a productive member of society, is a criminal offense in the U.S.
Which has exactly nothing to do with fairness.
Quote:
Originally Posted by InformedConsent
Why is the former form of societal help specifically only voluntary, while the other (tax slavery) isn't?
But it isn't a criminal offense in the U.S., while NOT being a tax slave if one is actually a productive member of society, is a criminal offense in the U.S.
Why is the former form of societal help specifically only voluntary, while the other (tax slavery) isn't?
That renders your hypothetical question fatally flawed. Performing the Heimlich Maneuver has nothing to do with fairness because it's not required by law and universally applied.
Quote:
Moral choice.
As is the legally required slavery of some to the benefit of others.
I countered your hypothetical question with questions you cannot answer because they destroy your logic.
You countered nothing. You tossed out irrelevant red herring, demonstrating in the process that you don't know what a hypothetical question is.
So... are you going to revert to type and play the poltroon? Or are you going to answer the question?
Quote:
Originally Posted by InformedConsent
I have rebutted.
How does one actually "rebut" a question? I have not even made an argument yet. Answer the question, and then we'll see if you're competent to offer a rebuttal of the argument that follows.
Quote:
Originally Posted by InformedConsent
If you're such a strong believer in the hypothetical question you posed, answer it yourself and then attempt to answer mine.
Fairness is an artificial ideal. There is so fairness set up naturally in this world. I think it shows that there is hope for us as a group, because we would want to see a sense of fairness in our world.
That renders your hypothetical question fatally flawed.
How can a hypothetical question be flawed? You're not making any sense.
Quote:
Originally Posted by InformedConsent
Performing the Heimlich Maneuver has nothing to do with fairness because it's not required by law and universally applied.
What does fairness have to do with whether or not anything is a law? Some laws are fair and others are not. Some things that are not laws are fair, and others are not. One has exactly nothing automatically to do with the other.
It's not a trick question, IC. Don't be so petrified.
Those who have to work for no compensation for a certain period of the year because the money they earn is confiscated by the federal government in order to pay federal income tax.
Already explained here:
Quote:
Originally Posted by InformedConsent
According to the IRS's effective federal income tax rate data, this is how long various income groups SLAVE each year because that money is taken from them by threat of imprisonment to pay federal income tax.
Top 1%: 23.39% tax rate - they're slaves for 2.8 months of every year
Top 5%: 20.64% tax rate - they're slaves for 2.5 months of every year
And then there's a HUGE drop off...
Top 5-10%: 11.98% tax rate - slaves for only 1.4 months
Top 10-25%: 8.70% tax rate - slaves for only 1 month
Top 25-50%: 6.01% (middle class) tax rate - slaves for only 0.7 of a month
And then, of course, below 50%, they are largely not required to be slaves, at all.
Please register to post and access all features of our very popular forum. It is free and quick. Over $68,000 in prizes has already been given out to active posters on our forum. Additional giveaways are planned.
Detailed information about all U.S. cities, counties, and zip codes on our site: City-data.com.
Please register to participate in our discussions with 2 million other members - it's free and quick! Some forums can only be seen by registered members. After you create your account, you'll be able to customize options and access all our 15,000 new posts/day with fewer ads.
