Today's Study. Nahum 1:1-8

[Ironmaw1776]

Originally Posted by Mr5150

(It can't be right, because it contradicts UR theology)

It cant be right because the scriptures teach that God works all things out according to the counsel of his own will, not according to the "free will" of men. And because the scriptures also teach that the word of God will accomplish everything that he pleases. So if Gods desire is that all people be saved, and if being the savior of all people is what pleases him, then the word of God will in FACT accomplish the salvation of all people.

[herefornow]

Originally Posted by Ironmaw1776

It cant be right because the scriptures teach that God works all things out according to the counsel of his own will, not according to the "free will" of men. And because the scriptures also teach that the word of God will accomplish everything that he pleases. So if Gods desire is that all people be saved, and if being the savior of all people is what pleases him, then the word of God will in FACT accomplish the salvation of all people.

I'm pretty sure He gets what he wants, in the end. He always does.

[Ironmaw1776]

Originally Posted by herefornow

I'm pretty sure He gets what he wants, in the end. He always does.

Indeed ... Though fundamentalist traditional Christianity teaches that God will not get what he wants in the end.

[katjonjj]

Originally Posted by Mr5150

This might belong in the KJV only thread, but the term "Who will have all men to be saved" is found in the KJV (eleizabethan english), but not in modern translations.

NKJV says: For this is good and acceptable in the sight of God our Savior, 4 who desires all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth.

NIV says: 3This is good, and pleases God our Savior, 4who wants all men to be saved and to come to a knowledge of the truth.

NASB says: This is good and acceptable in the sight of God our Savior,
4who desires all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth.

To want or desire is much less definite than "who will have". I am sure that God desired or wanted Adam to not eat of the fruit, but hey-stuff happens.

Actually it can also mean INTEND... if God intended to save all, what happened to his intention?

Strongs #2309 theló desire, be disposed toward, intend
"boulomai properly denotes rather a passive acquiescence in objective considerations" unlike thelo which can definitely mean WILL HAVE or INTENDS...

In the Greek it is God who intends all men to be saved... wishes all men to be saved.
Think for a second: How can God wish and not get what he wishes? or desire something without getting what he desires? How can he intend something but it not come to fruition?