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View Poll Results: What do you believe about the Bible?
It is COMPLETELY God's Word .. totally infallible, inerrant, 100% authoritative and true 26 40.63%
It is MOSTLY God's Word .. but there are a few or certain specific parts that are wrong 6 9.38%
It is SOMEWHAT God's Word .. you can only rely on certain, specific parts and the rest is wrong 6 9.38%
It is NOT AT ALL God's Word .. it's just a book with stories and that's all 26 40.63%
Voters: 64. You may not vote on this poll

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Old 06-15-2011, 09:39 AM
 
Location: Florida
33,582 posts, read 18,199,670 times
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The dead sea scrolls are proof that the word of God stands and much ado about nothing considering the word of God to to contain errors and be completely false to some.

It is a great stumbling block to any who say they are a true believer to even infer that God's word is with error.

One must possess the Holy Spirit of God to divide the scriptures with God's spirit. It is not a fact finding mission with the brain. It is with the spirit of God we are to feed on the scriptures of God which IS HIS COMPLETE WORD.
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Old 06-15-2011, 05:05 PM
 
Location: Ohio
13,933 posts, read 12,909,816 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by mams1559 View Post
I've been gone from the forum for a while and can see things haven't changed too much. However, I think it's time to take the pulse of this Christianity sub-forum.

I want to ask the members here what it is they personally believe about the Bible. <sorry .. this posted before I was finished ... please read on>

Where you stand on the importance or authority of the Bible will speak volumes about your belief. It seems many read the Bible and purport to be Christian but have very profound beliefs that contradict the Bible, either in whole or in part. I would like responders to expound on their position in a post so we can discuss why they believe what they believe regarding the Bible and in turn how that impacts their personal theology. I will in kind respond with my own personal views of the Bible and my beliefs.

I dont want to get involved in a debate here so let me just leave you all with one question;

If somthing is purported as being inerrant, then if even so much as one error can be found, then shouldnt the validity and credibility of the entire work be called into question???
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Old 06-15-2011, 06:54 PM
 
Location: USA
869 posts, read 973,162 times
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Both the OT and the NT are the infallible inerrant Word of the Living God!

Quote:
All Scripture is God-breathed and is useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness,
2 tim 3: 16
 
 
2 Peter 1:20 Above all, you must understand that no prophecy of Scripture came about by the prophet's own interpretation.
22. For prophecy never had its origin in the will of man, but men spoke from God as they were carried along by the Holy Spirit.

When the LORD finished speaking to Moses on Mount Sinai, he gave him the two tablets of the Testimony, the tablets of stone inscribed by the finger of God.
Exodus 31:18
 
 
2 Corinthians 3:3 You show that you are a letter from Christ, the result of our ministry, written not with ink but with the Spirit of the living God, not on tablets of stone but on tablets of human hearts.[SIZE=3][SIZE=3]
[/SIZE]
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Last edited by Radrook; 06-15-2011 at 07:02 PM..
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Old 06-15-2011, 08:40 PM
 
Location: Ohio
13,933 posts, read 12,909,816 times
Reputation: 7399
Quote:
Quote:
Originally Posted by Radrook View Post
Both the OT and the NT are the infallible inerrant Word of the Living God!

All Scripture is God-breathed and is useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness,
2 tim 3: 16
 
 
2 Peter 1:20 Above all, you must understand that no prophecy of Scripture came about by the prophet's own interpretation.
22. For prophecy never had its origin in the will of man, but men spoke from God as they were carried along by the Holy Spirit.

When the LORD finished speaking to Moses on Mount Sinai, he gave him the two tablets of the Testimony, the tablets of stone inscribed by the finger of God.
Exodus 31:18
 
 
2 Corinthians 3:3 You show that you are a letter from Christ, the result of our ministry, written not with ink but with the Spirit of the living God, not on tablets of stone but on tablets of human hearts.[SIZE=3][SIZE=3]
[/SIZE]
[/SIZE]
This is a common mistake made by Christians. Many times I have asked them to prove to me that the Bible is the word of God and they proceed by naming off a couple verses that say it is such as the ones above. The problem is, you cannot use the Bible to prove itself. Before you can use the Bible to prove anything, you must first prove the Bible itself.

Basicly, you cannot use the contents of the work in question { the Bible } to prove the work in question { the Bible } because when a work is questioned { in this case the Bible } that would include its contents.

Sheeesh....... you follow that???? LOL!!!
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Old 06-15-2011, 08:51 PM
 
1,932 posts, read 4,795,484 times
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"Yet, we must admit that none of the above lines of evidence quite proves that the Bible must be the inerrant Word of God. Critics have their counterarguments to all of the above. If we are to know for certain that the Bible is true, we will need a different kind of argument—one that is absolutely conclusive and irrefutable. In all the above cases, we took as an unstated premise that there are certain standards by which we judge how likely something is true. When we stop to consider what these standards are, we will see that the standards themselves are proof that the Bible is true."

How Do We Know that the Bible Is True?

Please read ... everyone. This is enlightening.

Blessings...
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Old 06-15-2011, 10:47 PM
 
63,891 posts, read 40,172,494 times
Reputation: 7883
Not properly dividing scripture is the cause of all the corruption of Christ's Gospel. Christ is the Word of God and His words are the Word of God . . . NOT the words of scribes snd prophets who were merely inspired by God, period. Ignorance is bad enough . . . but willful and deliberate ignorance is inexcusable. Being proud of it and revering it as a sign of faith is just plain evil.
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Old 06-15-2011, 11:14 PM
 
Location: Seattle, Washington
8,435 posts, read 10,540,225 times
Reputation: 1739
Quote:
Originally Posted by WhipperSnapper 88 View Post
This is a common mistake made by Christians. Many times I have asked them to prove to me that the Bible is the word of God and they proceed by naming off a couple verses that say it is such as the ones above. The problem is, you cannot use the Bible to prove itself. Before you can use the Bible to prove anything, you must first prove the Bible itself.

Basicly, you cannot use the contents of the work in question { the Bible } to prove the work in question { the Bible } because when a work is questioned { in this case the Bible } that would include its contents.

Sheeesh....... you follow that???? LOL!!!
Unfortunately the same could be said of science. We formulate methods of dating then date something using our own inaccurate measures then claim it's accurate (within a few tens of thousands of years)... When really we have no record of 99% of the data and are essentially guessing at a pattern from within our own recorded history (the 1% or less we do know).

So although I wholeheartedly agree with you... I always try to keep in mind this process is the result of limited scope of information. The less information used the greater amount of error overall.

To the individual who already believes the bible is inerrant, this verse or that is compelling... To others it is not proof at all.

I think the better question is: Is the bible read properly? As a text from the first century should be? Or is it wrought with superstition and archaic thoughts about the world, etc.... Is it a recording of history past or some prediction of the future. As you do when you read any book, you should determine what the author's purpose was.

Each book in the bible depicts an event(s) in the perspective of the author. IOW I believe the bible was written by men in the 1st century. Yet I don't believe Matthew, Luke, Mark, and John were writing to me... They were writing for the historical value of the recording.

Yet some Christians think they wrote to them specifically. I think this comes from the color of the tint in the glasses they are wearing. Once you extrapolate yourself from the talons of religiosity you see the bible in a whole new light. It can be a tool for good, but it is not a god nor inerrant. A book is not alive.
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Old 06-16-2011, 06:47 PM
 
30,904 posts, read 37,005,119 times
Reputation: 34557
I see the most popular poll results show the typical all-or-nothing mindset we see on CD forums (EG...Either it's 100% the word of God or just a bunch of made up stories). People just love to take extreme positiions so they don't have to think about or evaluate anything.
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Old 06-16-2011, 10:25 PM
 
362 posts, read 320,903 times
Reputation: 64
POST #89


ALABAMA STORM :

Quote:
Clear lens said to mike555 : TRANSLATORS AND SCRIBES (AND IN THE AGE OF PRINTING : PRINTERS) OF BIBLES HAVE DELETED; HAVE ADDED TO; AND HAVE ALWAYS CHANGED THE TEXT OF BIBLES. For you to insist that no significant changes occur simply means that you are unaware of changes that have occurred.

Alabama Storm remarked : "That's been one of my concerns also. How to weed out the errors in the transcribing of the texts. And not only in that transcribing but also in it's translation from one language to another.

One of the studies I've been currently engaged in is the simple translation of the Greek definite articles. And it appears not to be so simple after all. This is one of the most abused portions of Greek text into English that my own personal studies have found.

It appears that translators take a great deal of liberty by telling their readers what they believe the context of the text is and then defining that context when translating that definite article. Definite articles most often simply point to the context of the text to define or give added emphasis to what is under discussion. Understanding that context and conveying it in translation is another matter however. This inevitably leads to a host of preconceived doctrinal positions that are being inserted into the text and presented to it's readers in English as being truth. It has an immense influence on what the reader is reading
."
Alabama Storm, I was too busy at work today to do any research of significance specifically on definite articles (I actually don’t know much about sources that deal specifically with definite and indefinite articles in Greek or Hebrew texts so I’m not sure if my comments even AFTER research will be helpful to you. ) I do know that you are familiar with issues in textual criticism (perhaps moreso than myself) so I felt like I should at least make some comment so you know I wasn’t avoiding you. I’m not at a computer with greek text capabilities so my greek words in comments are transliterated. You’ll recognize them.



1) REGARDING ADDING AND TAKING AWAY FROM SACRED TEXTS

I very much agree that contextual and grammatical errors represent a significant portion of textual corruptions in all sacred texts. I have wondered if your observation regarding the effect of preconceived doctrinal positions isn’t one of the biggest hurdles in interpretation (which IS a critical part of translation) and transmission of religious data. We all tend to add what we want.

For example : Mike555, in trying to explain (mis-explain) the hebrew word “bara” said “...here is what the scriptures says. Gen 1:1 In the beginning God created (bara) the heavens and the earth.” which he then he interprets as follows, saying : “God created the heavens and the earth out of nothing...”. The addition of the three wordsout of nothing” to the text represents the prohibited “adding to” scriptures and in most cases comes from a preconceived doctrinal position. Such mental “adding to scripture” (or taking away from scripture) is commonplace and I suspect many who do this do not even realize they are adding to or taking away from scriptures. However, the effect is that scriptures are made to fall in line with personal belief rather than personal belief falling in line with scripture.

On the other hand adding was done anciently as well. Multiple manuscripts were changed to reflect the opinion of illustrious individuals. For example Codices were often marked and corrections made to them either in the text or in the Margins.

For example : Codex Colberto-Sarravianus has several passages marked with an asterisk which indicated at that time that Origen did not find them in the Septuagint (the Greek old Testament) and supplied them from other greek versions. below you can see the additions of the missing text in the margins.




You can see from this single page that there are so many corrections that some scholars feel that the two types of book of Jeremiah’s represent entirely different versions rather than a great number of losses in one and additions in another.


This sort of adding to texts (and taking away what we don’t want) was common in ancient history (copyright and ownership laws are relatively new in history), so that often, at the end of texts, the writers would add a curse on those who changed the writing of that specific text.

For example, When Ben Asher finished Codex Cairensis version of his Bible, he writes “Whoever alters a word of this Mahzor of this writing or erases one letter, or tears off one leaf...may he have neither pardon nor forgiveness, neither ‘let him behold the beauty of the Lord’ nor let him see the good that is reserved for those who fear him...”.

Such curses are also seen at the end of Old Testament and New Testament texts in OT deuteronomy and NT Revelations (to curse those who added to the text in deuteronomy or the text of revelation). However, such curses did not stop individuals from adding or subtracting to the text if they were convinced they were more correct in their beliefs than the text was.



2) ONE GREAT PROBLEM WITH ADDITIONS AND LOSSES FROM SACRED TEXTS


I think Mike555 made a good point when he refers to the problems in corruptions and in the adding and losing of sacred text is not so much that core doctrines are COMPLETELY lost in the texts but I think the biggest problem with ancient texts is their lack of clarity and specificity on points Christians find themselves arguing about..

Many important doctrines exist in great clarity in the text and on the other hand, there exists, at least, some doctrinal debris of most of even the obscure doctrines and references to other Judao-christian texts. The far greater problem is lack of clarity and specificity and the great amount of “doctrinal debris” out of which individuals may create multiple and opposing types of christianity from a single biblical text.

For example: When we look at the forum debates, Whether one believes Jesus is the same individual as His Father or if they believe that the son is a separate individual from the Father, there are scriptures that can be used to support either conclusion. Whether one believes in water and/or spirit baptism or not, both sides may find scriptures that support their conclusions. If one believes in universalism or if one does not, both sides arm themselves with supporting scriptures from the same sacred text. We see endless arguments regarding opposing (sometimes opposite) views where both sides use biblical texts with equal ease.

What is lost in corruptions is not mostly doctrinal, rather it is clarity and deep exposition of doctrines in such a clear manner that would make great errors less likely.
Justyn Martyr in his dialogue with Trypo the Jew claimed that the Jews had edited Old Testament scriptures in such a ways that it was less clear that Jesus was the Christ.

In the same way that incorrect word order affects doctrine, rarely "directly", it does immediately affects the directions our logic and doctrinal assumptions take in understanding doctrines. It matters for example, if Jesus will say to the Evil Doers “I never knew you, depart from me...” or if he said “You never knew me, depart from me...” (Matt 7:23) Each version affects omniscience, or christs relationship to us and to "evil doers" differently.

One current debate on the forum regards whether God hardened Pharoah’s heart
so that he would not let Israel God and for which evil, which caused Israel longer and more difficult servitude(for which pharoah may presumably be punished?) It matters if the correct version is one where God says “But I will harden Pharaoh's heart...” (which God does not do) or if the correct text is where God tells Moses “But Pharoah will harden his heart toward God...” (exodus 7:3). I think that Mike555 is correct when he claims that despite such corruptions, there is usually at least one place in the bible where the correct doctrine is represented (however dimly). In this case 1 Sam 6:6 has the prophet asking : “Why do you harden your hearts as the Egyptians and Pharaoh did?”.

However, given multiple versions of a corruption that says God did harden pharoah’s heart, how is a single correction in a relatively inconspicuous place in a different text in a different place in history likely to correct several prominent verses that have an incorrect version of events?
More individuals are familiar with Exodus’ version where "God hardens the heart" of a man compared to those who’ve read the more correct version in Samuel where "the man hardens his own heart".

Multiple commentaries both at the turn of the century AND nowadays, speculate as to how it was possible that “righteous abraham” deceived the egyptians concerning Sarah being his sister instead of his wife. With the discovery of the Dead Sea Scrolls and it’s texts, we can correct our view of Abraham since we now have the text explaining the dream God gave Abraham, instructing Abraham to say that Sarah was his sister (the dream of the cedar and the palm). Abraham is left both righteous and obedient with the addition of such textual insights.

In the context of YOUR specific observation regarding definite articles, I am sure that someone has made lists of problems caused by definite and indefinite articles (I am not one of those). However, I believe that incorrect articles cause their own difficulties and individuals create theologies based on incorrect definite and indefinite articles.

Some mis-translated articles matter little and others matter more. The missed article in NIV Matt 6:6 “... when you pray, go into your room, close the door” matters little, however confusion of more important theologies may rest on John 1:1 “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God”... it matters to theology whether “the Word was God” or “the Word was ‘A’ God”. The second translation fits 1st century Judao-Christianity better than the first one.

Such problems are worse when rendering from semetic Aramaic, and creating a Greek sentence and then creating an english sentence since ancient aramaic/hebrew does not HAVE an “is” in it, whereas Greek want’s the “is” (estin). What does a translator do to try to make the best sense for the average person? He adds an “is” to it and the English inherits the resulting corruption.

For example, the earliest translator of Matt 26:28 must translate the oral aramaic “This : my blood of the covenant” which is correct aramaic, but poorly understood by non-hebrews. Rendering the Greek he then adds a non-existent “estin” to the Greek to create an "incorrect, but better understood" sentence “This [IS] my blood of the covenant” which the english speaker is left to interpret in multiple ways. It is the non-existent “estin” [is] which underlies the doctrine of trans-subtantiation.

TENSE also creates problems : Is one SAVED as a perfect and past tense, or as an ongoing process? What does one do with a Greek Aorist sense when going to a language that lacks it. Separate theologies are created with endless arguments due to a word tense.

It bothers me when an educated person speaks incorrectly and says “We was driving from our house, up to the farm.” ("we was" sounds bad and the farm is south of their house so you would expect them to at least say "down to the farm"...) However, one translator makes the point that the ancients were probably worse at speaking and writing proper greek than we are at speaking and writing proper english and, in fact, he suggests that to translate, one ought to use, not the rules of “proper” written koine Greek, but rather translate by “rules of usage”, that is how people actually USED greek, rather than how people SHOULD HAVE used greek according to a text book. It’s very complicated.

WORD MEANING also creates theologies and the problems attending new theories. Mike555 and I discussed the difference between greek “plasmon” “to form” in his attempt to use the word to support his ex-nihilo creation from “nothing”, versus the meaning of the verb as “to shape” an already existing thing.. Thus a doctrine can be created or at least supported by a person who assigns an ANCIENT word a meaning which is independent of it’s ancient context or meaning.

Such a lack of HISTORICAL CONTEXT is, I believe, also a difficult, perhaps insurmountable problem for the casual reader of any of the bibles.

Theologies are often built by individuals who have little or no theological blueprint or historical foundation other than what they are given by others. They often live their lives inside such theologies but often, nothing is square; the fuses often blow and the plumbing leaks.


Clear
eidrviseol

Last edited by Clear lens; 06-16-2011 at 11:41 PM..
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Old 06-16-2011, 11:57 PM
 
Location: USA
869 posts, read 973,162 times
Reputation: 294
Quote:
This is a common mistake made by Christians. Many times I have asked them to prove to me that the Bible is the word of God and they proceed by naming off a couple verses that say it is such as the ones above. The problem is, you cannot use the Bible to prove itself. Before you can use the Bible to prove anything, you must first prove the Bible itself.

Basicly, you cannot use the contents of the work in question { the Bible } to prove the work in question { the Bible } because when a work is questioned { in this case the Bible } that would include its contents.

Sheeesh....... you follow that???? LOL!!!
Well, the oped asks a question-correct? The question is whether I believe that the Bible is the Word of God-right? I respond by saying that yes, I do believe that the Bible is the Word of God. If the question had been "Why do you believe the Bible is the Word of God?" then I would have given the reasons. But since that was NOT the question-giving the reasons would have been overkill and off topic.

So within the context of the oped question the scriptures posted as part of the reply should not be understood as an attempt to prove WHY I believe that the Bible is the Word of God. They should be viewed as simply an expression of my belief as expressed in the pages of the Bible itself. In short, you are misunderstanding the purpose for the biblical quotes by attributing more to them than was intended.
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