Why female homosexuality is not mentioned in the Bible? (hell, women, ritual)
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With knowing that polygamy was common as were concubines and harems, isn't it safe to assume that *some* girl-on-girl action happened? Why did God not deal with this in the Mosaic Law and only mentions it in passing in the New Testament?
Apparently it just wasn't a big deal to the OT writers, and Paul didn't like women anyways, so he really didn't think of it either.
Ontuse?
KJV Romans 1:26 For this cause God gave them up unto vile affections: for even their women did change thenatural use into that which is against nature: 27 And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet.
Seems pretty straight forward. Reading in context helps.
Paul did not dislike like women as is evident if one actually pays attention to what he said and did.
One of the few recorded miracles he did was to raise a woman from the dead.
yeah I'd say moral laws and responsbilities for a man it would be the same for a woman, because morals are not gender specific and whether you are a man or a woman, God holds us to standards, i.e. you cant say "oh im a woman so im exempt".
Still lust is sin as it will attract demons , which need to be deliver by Christ to be in the presence of God , so if sexually diverse relationship come with lust then sin will be there , and adultery sin is there so will the demon spirit taking authority to help people sin more ....... See this is the spiritual issues which God has , as God does not induce people to sin , He will only keep people in sin when they want sin , which is the justice of God
Paul was referring to people who turned away from his god and were using idolatrous ritual sex acts used to worship pagan fertility gods in Corinthian pagan temples. The letter was supposedly written from Corinth where there were many pagan temples and temple prostitutes in the first century.
The men and women (temple prostitutes) were first having heterosexual sex with each other. It says that a few verses before. That this takes place in pagan temples is also made obvious a few verses earlier. They then "exchanged" vaginal sex for anal sex. Women had anal sex with the men and in the same way, men had anal sex with men.
St Augustine, wrote of men having anal sex with their wives and cited Romans 1:26. Most people seem to just insert the idea that the women were having sex with each other, but the original Greek doesn't say that.
Augustine (354–430 C.E.):
"But if one has relations even with one’s wife in a part of the body which was not made for begetting children, such relations are against nature and indecent. In fact, the same apostle earlier said the same thing about the women, For their women exchanged natural relations for those which are against nature (Rom 1:26)".
Augustine, Marriage and Desire 20.35 (trans. Roland Teske; ed. John E Rotelle; Answer to the Pelagians, II; New York: New City Press, 1990), 75-76.
Where does it say in the bible that Paul did not like women ? Talk about obtuse.
Really!
All that Paul went thru, and the fact that Jesus Himself called him on the road to Damascus, and thru him, penned much of the New Testament,,,, and then to read a comment such as that.. sheesh!!!!
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