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It began in the book of Genesis. We see hints of it then. Throughout the OT, we see a progressive revelation of it being revealed more and more. By the time of the NT, we see Jesus called God, worshiped as God, as well as the person of the Holy Spirit being revealed more and more. He is seen acting as a person, he is lied to, he is acting on people, etc.
The doctrine of the Trinity was defended in 325 AD at the council of Nicea. Perhaps your assumption is that it was "invented" then...but really, it was established well before then.
QUESTION:
Please cite any passage in Matthew, Mark, or Luke in which Jesus says or is claimed to
be divine. That began about 85 AD. The Christians were then expelled as "minim" (apostates) from the Jewish synagogues.
Only in John's gospel written sometime after 94 AD do we have any claim that Jesus was God in addition to being the messiah. Did an election in 325 AD really establish Jesus as divine? Can men do that? And see if you can find any mention of a Trinity in 325 AD at the Council of Nicea.
Why do you suppose that is?
Of course, once this was done, it became necessary to explain how there were two persons who could claim to be God. The Jewish Shema "Hear O Israel, the Lord in One"! was governing and binding on Christians. So next Binitarianism and later Trinitaraniam were invented and made "doctrine..
Last edited by Aristotle's Child; 02-02-2016 at 01:22 PM..
Reason: typo
Please cite any passage in Matthew, Mark, or Luke in which Jesus says or is claimed to
be divine. That began about 85 AD. The Christians were then expelled as "minim" (apostates) from the Jewish synagogues.
Only in John's gospel written sometime after 94 AD do we have any claim that Jesus was God in addition to being the messiah. Did an election in 325 AD really establish Jesus as divine? Can men do that? And see if you can find any mention of a Trinity in 325 AD at the Council of Nicea.
Why do you suppose that is?
Of course, once this was done, it became necessary to explain how there were two persons who could claim to be God. The Jewish Shema "Hear O Israel, the Lord in One"! was governing and binding on Christians. So next Binitarianism and later Trinitaraniam were invented and made "doctrine..
This progression is what was warned about in the "latter days." To the early Christians the latter days were at most the next 100 years or so, certainly NOT some time in our future some 2000+ years later. The majority today who follow the apostate penal substitution and Trinity notions ARE those who were prophesied to follow the anti-Christ in the "latter days."
Please cite any passage in Matthew, Mark, or Luke in which Jesus says or is claimed to
be divine. That began about 85 AD. The Christians were then expelled as "minim" (apostates) from the Jewish synagogues.
John, Revelation, Colossians, etc are as equally inspired. Why should I intentionally limit the argument to 1/10 of the testimony available?
Quote:
Only in John's gospel written sometime after 94 AD do we have any claim that Jesus was God in addition to being the messiah. Did an election in 325 AD really establish Jesus as divine? Can men do that? And see if you can find any mention of a Trinity in 325 AD at the Council of Nicea.
The council of 325 AD established that Arianism was a heresy. It was the primary objection to Trinitarian doctrine.
Quote:
Why do you suppose that is?
Of course, once this was done, it became necessary to explain how there were two persons who could claim to be God. The Jewish Shema "Hear O Israel, the Lord in One"! was governing and binding on Christians. So next Binitarianism and later Trinitaraniam were invented and made "doctrine..
There is 3 persons that are God, actually. The Holy Spirit is a person, and is also fully divine. We see that stated in Acts 5.
why because "The person without the Spirit does not accept the things that come from the Spirit of God but considers them foolishness and cannot understand them because they are spiritually discerned " 1 Corinthians 2:14
however, those on the side of the truth believe:
Jesus is without sin ... thought, spoken words, actions
Jesus claimed: ... "Jesus answered them, 'Destroy this temple, and I will raise it again in three days.' " John 2:19
Jesus physically rose from the dead
Matthew 28:6
"He is not here; he has risen, just as he said." ~ The angel at the empty tomb.
Yes, Jesus rose from the dead, but according to 1st Peter 3:18 B Jesus was made alive in a: spirit body.
Jesus did Not resurrect himself according to Acts 3:15; Acts 13:30,37; Colossians 2:12; 1st Thess 1:10
If Jesus was in a physical body then his followers would have recognized him. Since Jesus was in a spirit body ( as he previously had in his pre-human existence ) then that is why Jesus used different materialized bodies after God resurrected Jesus.
Why stop at 1st Cor. 2:14 when chapter 2 ends at verse 16 which reads who has known the mind of God..... but we have the mind of Christ.
Who is the One God according to 1st Corinthians 8:6 ?________
Who is the head of Christ according to 1st Corinthians 11:3 B ?________
Does the heavenly resurrected Jesus still have a God over him according to John at Revelation 3:12 ?_____
Yes, Jesus rose from the dead, but according to 1st Peter 3:18 B Jesus was made alive in a: spirit body.
Jesus did Not resurrect himself according to Acts 3:15; Acts 13:30,37; Colossians 2:12; 1st Thess 1:10
If Jesus was in a physical body then his followers would have recognized him. Since Jesus was in a spirit body ( as he previously had in his pre-human existence ) then that is why Jesus used different materialized bodies after God resurrected Jesus.
He had a physical body. That was the point of him inviting Thomas to feel the wounds in his hands and side.
Quote:
Why stop at 1st Cor. 2:14 when chapter 2 ends at verse 16 which reads who has known the mind of God..... but we have the mind of Christ.
Who is the One God according to 1st Corinthians 8:6 ?________
Who is the head of Christ according to 1st Corinthians 11:3 B ?________
Does the heavenly resurrected Jesus still have a God over him according to John at Revelation 3:12 ?_____
[/indent]
Yes--Jesus is God. He is one of the persons in the Godhead. God is God.
But to answer your question, he is the Son -- and he is sent by the Father. He is not the Father.
John, Revelation, Colossians, etc are as equally inspired. Why should I intentionally limit the argument to 1/10 of the testimony available?
There is 3 persons that are God, actually. The Holy Spirit is a person, and is also fully divine. We see that stated in Acts 5.
Yes, Colossians 1:15,17 says Jesus is first born of every creature.
That is why God could send the already existing pre-human heavenly Jesus to earth for us.
Colossians 2:12 B says God raised Jesus from the dead. - Acts 3:15; Acts 13:30,37
Where in Acts 5 does it say God's spirit is part of a trinity ?
At KJV Numbers 11:17,25 God's spirit is neuter as the word " it " and Not masculine.
In Greek grammar rules a neuter can be called as in a gender.
Even in English we can call a neuter car or a ship as a "she" although remaining a neuter " it ".
Also, KJV at Romans 8:16,26 God's spirit is listed " itself ". Itself is neuter.
God's spirit is what God's sends forth - Psalm 104:30
He had a physical body. That was the point of him inviting Thomas to feel the wounds in his hands and side.
Yes--Jesus is God. He is one of the persons in the Godhead. God is God.
But to answer your question, he is the Son -- and he is sent by the Father. He is not the Father.
A physical body does Not walk through shut doors does it ?_______ John 20:19,26
Didn't Jesus appear in that shut room, and used a materialized body to appear to doubting Thomas.
If Jesus had a physical body why wasn't he recognized at Luke 24:16 ?__________ ( Luke 24 13-43 )
Who did Jesus say he goes to at John 20:17 B ?_______ Doesn't it say to his God ?_______ - Rev. 3:12
Yes, Colossians 1:15,17 says Jesus is first born of every creature.
That is why God could send the already existing pre-human heavenly Jesus to earth for us.
You obviously have no clue what "firstborn" in this context means, do you? It has nothing to do with the order of birth, nor does it imply creation in that context.
Quote:
Colossians 2:12 B says God raised Jesus from the dead. - Acts 3:15; Acts 13:30,37
Yes--God did raise him from the dead. Your point?
Quote:
Where in Acts 5 does it say God's spirit is part of a trinity ?
Peter clearly called The Holy Spirit "God". The Holy Spirit is a person that can be lied to. It's not just a force. He is God.
Acts 5: 1-4. But a man named Ananias, with his wife Sapphira, sold a piece of property, 2 and kept back some of the price for himself, with his wife’s [a]full knowledge, and bringing a portion of it, he laid it at the apostles’ feet. 3 But Peter said, “Ananias, why has Satan filled your heart to lie to the Holy Spirit and to keep back some of the price of the land? 4 While it remained unsold, did it not remain your own? And after it was sold, was it not [b]under your control? Why is it that you have conceived this deed in your heart? You have not lied to men but to God.”
At KJV Numbers 11:17,25 God's spirit is neuter as the word " it " and Not masculine.
In Greek grammar rules a neuter can be called as in a gender.
Even in English we can call a neuter car or a ship as a "she" although remaining a neuter " it ".
Also, KJV at Romans 8:16,26 God's spirit is listed " itself ". Itself is neuter.
God's spirit is what God's sends forth - Psalm 104:30[/quote]
And God's Spirit can also be lied to, can take action, and has a will. Do you realize that?
You are doing an excellent job, Matthew 4:4! Vizio is too strongly indoctrinated into the anti-Christ apostate majority doctrine prophesied for these "latter days."
The holy spirit implies an object. God's spirit as belonging to God. Not holy spirit's God. - Psalm 104:30
The Jesus Christ in that Jesus is a name and Lord is a title. KJV As the two LORD/Lord's are titles at Psalm 110:1 ( No third LORD/Lord there )
The God is also a title and Not the Tetragrammaton YHWH name which never stands for God's spirit or Lord Jesus, but only for LORD God.
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