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Most people I know that say the Hebrew version of Matthew is the original, also say there is no Virgin birth in it and the Virgin Birth was later inserted in the Greek copies, can anyone verify if this is true?
Not lying, why on earth would I need/want to about that??? I'm stating a fact, that's all. Why would I? Do you see anything in there that tells me to? Peace
i didn't say you were lying...sorry, i assumed by "messenger" you meant "translator." lol.
The idea of a Hebrew version of Matthew is a hypothesis with some standing because of statements by several early church fathers about such a copy, and using textual criticism (studying the words and culture of the times to grasp what it meant to them) in support of what those fathers said.
What is curious to me is that the OP has argued, sometimes vehemently, AGAINST using textual criticism, a more modern approach to Scripture, but swallows this hypothesis whole without blinking an eye.
I think there is some evidence for it, and logic itself lends itself to the idea that a Jew, writing to Jews, may have written both a Hebrew and a Greek copy.
The jury remains out however, and scholars still debate whether it was Matthew or even other gospels that the church fathers referenced.
Quote:
Carl August Credner (1832) identified three Jewish-Christian Gospels: Jerome's Gospel of the Nazarenes, the Greek Gospel of the Ebionites cited by Epiphanius in his Panarion, and a Greek gospel cited by Origen, which he referred to as the Gospel of the Hebrews. In the 20th Century the majority school of critical scholarship, such as Hans Waitz, Philip Vielhauer and Albertus Klijn, proposed a tripartite distinction between Epiphanius' Greek Jewish Gospel, Jerome's Hebrew (or Aramaic) Gospel, and a Gospel of the Hebrews, which was produced by Jewish Christians in Egypt, and like the canonical Epistle to the Hebrewswas Hebrew only in nationality not language. The exact identification of which Jewish Gospel is which in the references of Jerome, Origen and Epiphanius, and whether each church father had one or more Jewish Gospels in mind, is an ongoing subject of scholarly debate. However the presence in patristic testimony concerning three different Jewish Gospels with three different traditions regarding the baptism of Christsuggests multiple traditions.[
The fact that there is this debate highlights how FREQUENTLY Scripture can be questioned in terms of its authenticity, interpretation and especially translation. To highlight this I provide an off-topic video of textual criticism of Isaiah 7:14 and 9:6 (in two separate parts) that shows just the translation problems in understanding Scripture.
It's why no one who claims they "understand" the Bible can make such a foolish blanket statement. There are enough nuances just in translation to have kept scholars pondering for centuries.
Probably because the OP in question received the knowledge directly from the Spirit of G-d and only recently scholars have begun to catch up to the idea = a witness to the Spirit. Peace
Probably because the OP in question received the knowledge directly from the Spirit of G-d and only recently scholars have begun to catch up to the idea = a witness to the Spirit. Peace
It's why no one who claims they "understand" the Bible can make such a foolish blanket statement. There are enough nuances just in translation to have kept scholars pondering for centuries.
i guess if one is looking for "Facts" or "proof," yes, the Bible might be confounding. Oh well.
i don't use It like that. It is much more valuable for It's stated purposes imo
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Peace
