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Do you not claim that YOUR messiah is prophesied in OUR Tanakh?...If so, then it is relevant...
How is it you think any book you didn't write is YOUR BOOK? If you were not blinded (for a purpose), you would not seek to separate yourself from others and go about trying to insult Christians in their designated forum. But it is obvious that you are seething with anger about Christians and about gentiles being equal in God's eyes to the children of Israel whom he divorced on account of their abominations and by reading some of the writings in the OT, I can say indeed, it is not lacking in abominable teachings. You say you are a Jew. How could you possibly even know you are descended from the tribe of Judah? Seriously.
I suppose the moderators will continue to allow you to harass the Christians here. Oh well - so be it. I am free to ignore your posts at any time.
How is it you think any book you didn't write is YOUR BOOK? If you were not blinded (for a purpose), you would not seek to separate yourself from others and go about trying to insult Christians in their designated forum. But it is obvious that you are seething with anger about Christians and about gentiles being equal in God's eyes to the children of Israel whom he divorced on account of their abominations and by reading some of the writings in the OT, I can say indeed, it is not lacking in abominable teachings. You say you are a Jew. How could you possibly even know you are descended from the tribe of Judah? Seriously.
I suppose the moderators will continue to allow you to harass the Christians here. Oh well - so be it. I am free to ignore your posts at any time.
I am not angry...But you have just deflected and did not answer the question...And where does it say that G-d divorced the Jews?...
In Matthew 15, there is an incident that, at first, seems to confirm the idea that Jesus came only for the Jews. Jesus was traveling through Tyre and Sidon, a Gentile region, and “a Canaanite woman from that vicinity came to him, crying out, ‘Lord, Son of David, have mercy on me! My daughter is demon-possessed and suffering terribly’” (Matthew 15:22). This Gentile woman recognized Jesus as the Messiah but “Jesus did not answer a word." As the woman kept up her appeals, Jesus finally responded, but His words seemed to hold little hope: “I was sent 'only' to the lost sheep of Israel” (v 24). However, the woman did not give up, and Jesus eventually granted her request, based on her “great faith” (v 28).
Did Jesus come only for the Jews and not the Gentiles?---if so, what was God's plan for the Gentiles???? (did he have a plan for them or where they just going to be sent to Hell?)
Christ didn't know that the Jews would reject him, else he wouldn't have preached the Gospel to them. (Since God is omniscient, he knew that the Jews would reject Christ). Is Jesus NOT also God and if so, why bother preaching to the Jews?
However, If this is true, and Christ IS GOD, then why would he say “I was sent only to the lost sheep of Israel” knowing full well they would reject him? Why did God send Jesus to preach to the Jews ONLY?
What was God's plan for the Gentiles...did he have a plan to Save them too? Did he change his plan (MID-WAY) into Jesus's Ministry (did God make changes to his plan "on the Fly???)
Just Curious to hear some of these answers...as i investigate more into Jesus and his mission.
Thanks...
ACTS 9 changed the direction of things to the GENTILES but most if not all the mainline denominations missed it or ignore it...........
But Ananias answered, "Lord, I have heard from many about this man, how much evil he has done to your saints at Jerusalem. 14 And here he has authority from the chief priests to bind all who call on your name." 15 But the Lord said to him, "Go, for he is a chosen instrument of mine to CARRY MY NAME BEFORE THE GENTILES and kings and the children of Israel. 16 For I will show him how much he must suffer for the sake of my name." 17 So Ananias departed and entered the house. And laying his hands on him he said, "Brother Saul, the Lord Jesus who appeared to you on the road by which you came has sent me so that you may regain your sight and be filled with the Holy Spirit."
Ultimately Paul would be given the gospel of grace where both Jews AND gentiles can be saved......
The answer is in Romans 11. Paul explains that the gentiles are the "wild branch" and must be grafted into Israel. This is what Christianity completely misses. Ephesians 2 shows that Jew and gentile, are the One new man, meaning salvation has come to the gentiles also. A spiritual Israel so to speak. Both part of the same tree. Grafted together, one in Messiah, the commonwealth of Israel together.
The answer is in Romans 11. Paul explains that the gentiles are the "wild branch" and must be grafted into Israel. This is what Christianity completely misses. Ephesians 2 shows that Jew and gentile, are the One new man, meaning salvation has come to the gentiles also. A spiritual Israel so to speak. Both part of the same tree. Grafted together, one in Messiah, the commonwealth of Israel together.
No, Gentiles are not grafted into Israel. That is not what Paul said. In the olive branch analogy in Romans 11:16-24 the root of the Olive tree is the Abrahamic covenant which states that through Abraham all the families of the earth will be blessed (Genesis 12:1-3). The root is not Israel. The root is the Abrahamic covenant. Some of the natural branches (Israel) of the olive tree were broken off and branches from a wild olive tree (Gentiles) were grafted in. Both Jews and Gentiles share in the Abrahamic Covenant, but that does not mean that Gentiles are grafted into Israel.
Rather, in the church-age, both Jews and Gentiles are placed into the body of Christ and become a new creation called church in which there is neither Jew nor Gentile.
While Israel has been temporarily set aside while the new creation- the church is being formed, God will again turn His attention back to Israel once the church has been raptured.
Christianity is not Judaism and the church is not spiritual Israel. At issue here are the differing views of replacement theology and dispensationalism which I'm not going to take the time to go into, but those interested can get an introduction to the subject in the following sites.
What is the Olive Tree? Paul teaches (Romans 11) that the Olive Tree represents the place or stream of blessing. Before developing this I need to identify the elements composing the Olive Tree illustration: The root refers to the Abrahamic Covenant which promised blessings to both Israel and Gentiles. The natural branches are national Israel, while the wild branches represent Gentiles. Thus, the Olive Tree is neither Israel nor the Church but is the place of privilege or blessing. Since the purpose of Romans 11 is to argue that God has not cast away His people-Israel (11:1), therefore, the Olive Tree illustration includes a depiction of future blessing for national Israel.
The answer is in Romans 11. Paul explains that the gentiles are the "wild branch" and must be grafted into Israel. This is what Christianity completely misses. Ephesians 2 shows that Jew and gentile, are the One new man, meaning salvation has come to the gentiles also. A spiritual Israel so to speak. Both part of the same tree. Grafted together, one in Messiah, the commonwealth of Israel together.
Gentiles are grafted through the promise to the ten lost tribes, THAT is what Romans explains. Jesus brought a new covenant for Judah, and for the gentiles of Ephraim, NOT GENTILES. Gentiles who convert under the promise of Hosea 2, THEY JOIN JEWS. Messiah takes the two and makes one, except that 2000 years ago, Gentiles stopped converting to become with Jews, and the whole point is for Gentiles to join the nation of Israel. Jesus didn't bring a betrothal to the Jew, the Jew needed no betrothal to become Israel. A Jew doesn't need a betrothal to a Jew to become a Jew.
Hosea promises the Gentile who comes repenting of his lawlessness and paganism that he can become one with the Jew. God doesn't exclude anyone, and Messiah came adding to the nation already saved. If the Gentile is not in the same religion as the Jew and has not become as one with the Jew, it's on the Gentiles head because there is no inheritance outside of Israel. You either become Israel or you don't.
Salvation for All Nations
1Thus saith the LORD, Keep ye judgment, and do justice: for my salvation is near to come, and my righteousness to be revealed. 2Blessed is the man that doeth this, and the son of man that layeth hold on it; that keepeth the sabbath from polluting it, and keepeth his hand from doing any evil. 3Neither let the son of the stranger, that hath joined himself to the LORD, speak, saying, The LORD hath utterly separated me from his people: neither let the eunuch say, Behold, I am a dry tree. 4For thus saith the LORD unto the eunuchs that keep my sabbaths, and choose the things that please me, and take hold of my covenant; 5Even unto them will I give in mine house and within my walls a place and a name better than of sons and of daughters: I will give them an everlasting name, that shall not be cut off. 6Also the sons of the stranger, that join themselves to the LORD, to serve him, and to love the name of the LORD, to be his servants, every one that keepeth the sabbath from polluting it, and taketh hold of my covenant; 7Even them will I bring to my holy mountain, and make them joyful in my house of prayer: their burnt offerings and their sacrifices shall be accepted upon mine altar; for mine house shall be called an house of prayer for all people. 8The Lord GOD which gathereth the outcasts of Israel saith, Yet will I gather others to him, beside those that are gathered unto him.
You either take hold of the covenant or you don't, it is that simple, and that is Israel. If you don't come under the name of Israel, you have a problem, and Isaiah 56 shows exactly how that is done.
No matter what anyone says, they can't undo the promise of God.
..............And where does it say that G-d divorced the Jews?...
At Matthew 23:38 God abandoned their religious ' house ' of worship ( temple arrangement ).
Jesus did Not change the Law, nor edit the Law, but Jesus fulfilled the law - Romans 10:4.
Jesus made reference to such a divorcing at Luke 16:14,16,18.
Those covetous hate-filled Pharisees were in a ' marriage contract ' so to speak, the constitution of the Mosaic Law.
In order to be free ( free from that law ) death would have to end that marital contact or covenant.- Romans 7:1-6
In Matthew 15, there is an incident that, at first, seems to confirm the idea that Jesus came only for the Jews. ..................... Jesus finally responded, but His words seemed to hold little hope: “I was sent 'only' to the lost sheep of Israel” (v 24). However, the woman did not give up, and Jesus eventually granted her request, based on her “great faith” (v 28).
Did Jesus come only for the Jews and not the Gentiles?---if so, what was God's plan for the Gentiles???? (did he have a plan for them or where they just going to be sent to Hell?)
Christ didn't know that the Jews would reject him, else he wouldn't have preached the Gospel to them. (Since God is omniscient, he knew that the Jews would reject Christ). Is Jesus NOT also God and if so, why bother preaching to the Jews?
However, If this is true, and Christ IS GOD, then why would he say “I was sent only to the lost sheep of Israel” knowing full well they would reject him? Why did God send Jesus to preach to the Jews ONLY?
What was God's plan for the Gentiles...did he have a plan to Save them too? Did he change his plan (MID-WAY) into Jesus's Ministry (did God make changes to his plan "on the Fly???)
Just Curious to hear some of these answers...as i investigate more into Jesus and his mission.
Thanks...
God does Not have a plan that can be changed but God has a 'purpose'.
Yes, as God's chosen people those Jews were given first choice, first opportunity, and that is why Jesus only went to the Jews - Luke 4:43-44.
Can you think of anyone righteous who went to hell ______
According to Acts 2:27 the day righteous Jesus died he went to hell.
Not some religious-myth hell which is taught as being Scripture, but the Bible's hell which is the grave.
So, the day Jesus died he went to the grave until his God resurrected Jesus out of biblical hell aka grave.
The Bible's hell is simply mankind's stone-cold temporary grave for the sleeping dead.
That is why Jesus and the old Hebrew Scriptures teach un-conscious sleep in death:
- John 11:11-14; Psalms 6:5; 13:3; 115:17; 146:4; Ecclesiastes 9:5.
So, at death we go to the grave, but because Jesus taught there would be others besides Jews is why the Samaritans and after the Samaritans then the way was opened up for the people of the gentile nations starting with Acts chapter 10 Cornelius. This is also why the good news of God's kingdom of Daniel 2:44 is being proclaimed today to ALL nations just as Jesus instructed at Matthew 24:14; Acts 1:8.
The answer is in Romans 11. Paul explains that the gentiles are the "wild branch" and must be grafted into Israel. This is what Christianity completely misses. Ephesians 2 shows that Jew and gentile, are the One new man, meaning salvation has come to the gentiles also. A spiritual Israel so to speak. Both part of the same tree. Grafted together, one in Messiah, the commonwealth of Israel together.
At Matthew 23:38 God abandoned their religious ' house ' of worship ( temple arrangement ).
Jesus did Not change the Law, nor edit the Law, but Jesus fulfilled the law - Romans 10:4.
Jesus made reference to such a divorcing at Luke 16:14,16,18.
Those covetous hate-filled Pharisees were in a ' marriage contract ' so to speak, the constitution of the Mosaic Law.
In order to be free ( free from that law ) death would have to end that marital contact or covenant.- Romans 7:1-6
Then that violates what G-d said in the OT...
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