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Stop in the name of the law---same meaning used. The Father is Jehovah, The son is Jesus, The Holy spirit doesnt have a name like all living beings do.
Yes, God's spirit (Psalm 104:30) does Not have a name, after all God's spirit is a neuter "it" according to the old King James at Numbers 11:17,25
Just as in English, people call a car or a ship as a ' she ' but they remain a nameless neuter "it".
Good point ^ above ^ because if we look at Psalm 110 in the King James we find two (2) LORD/Lord's mentioned.
The LORD in ALL capital letters is where the Tetragrammaton (YHWH) appears.
The Lord, in some lower-case letters, stands for Lord Jesus ( No Tetragrammaton applied )
And we find the connecting word ' and ' being used at 1st Corinthians 8:6. Connecting between two persons.
One God.....' and ' one Lord, Jesus Christ.....
In Psalm 110, who is "the Lord" (as opposed to "the LORD") being spoken of?
It should be clear that there is one Lord in holy scripture (Ephesians 4:5); and that the Father is that Lord (Matthew 11:25, Luke 10:21, 2 Corinthians 6:17-18).
Yet, no one can say that Jesus is the Lord except by the Spirit of truth (1 Corinthians 12:3). And, Jesus is the one Lord of holy scripture (1 Corinthians 8:6).
I conclude that Jesus and the Father are the same Lord...spelled "L-o-r-d".
So, in Psalms 110, it should be clear that the Father is speaking to the Father; that "my Lord" (as well as "the LORD") is indeed the Father.
This is possible because God is an eternal Spirit and it was not possible that He should VACATE ETERNITY when He descended to become a Man.
So, you have Him in two positions...both incarnated and in His pre-incarnate form...Jesus on earth and the Father in heaven...
Both of them being the same Spirit....albeit Jesus is come in human flesh.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Matthew 4:4
Yes, God's spirit (Psalm 104:30) does Not have a name, after all God's spirit is a neuter "it" according to the old King James at Numbers 11:17,25
Just as in English, people call a car or a ship as a ' she ' but they remain a nameless neuter "it".
There is one name for the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Ghost (Matthew 28:19)
Yes, God's spirit (Psalm 104:30) does Not have a name, after all God's spirit is a neuter "it" according to the old King James at Numbers 11:17,25
Just as in English, people call a car or a ship as a ' she ' but they remain a nameless neuter "it".
Have you thought to check what the Greek says? The KJV isn't the best text to consult on all things.
Care to enlighten me with the names of the translators that formed the NWT so that the truth of your claims can be verified?
God through holy spirit-- men get no credit for Gods written word. God wrote those words, he gets all credit.
God accepts nothing less than his will. His will put his personal name into the bible about 7000 x--satans will had it removed. Those who refuse to put his name back are doing satans will.
Have you ever bothered to research this? Pick up a modern translation and you'll see that no, it isn't the case. Your argument is patently incorrect. The editors give their reasoning for why they substitute LORD in the foreward.
The issue is that it really just makes you look ignorant when you ascribe motive where there is none.
The Greek literally uses the word "Kyrios" there. That's what Luke wrote when he wrote it. He did not write "Jehovah", or YHWH. Your argument is with Luke.
It was quoted by Luke using kyrios, but in Joel 2:31-31 it uses YHWH. The question you should ask is why Luke used the Greek term?
The translators often use LORD as a substitute for the tetragrammaton. It isn't because they don't want to use the correct name, but because it shows reverence for God's name. Which, incidentally, is not Jehovah. It's never written in Greek or Hebrew as Jehovah.
The only one teaching wrongly here is the false teacher you believed.
Yes. So do your homework. Don't fall for the lies.
God willed his name into his written word--- any other excuse is hogwash--- Those who love God, live by his will all the way. When satans will interferes, those who love God put God first no matter what. No excuses cut it.
You mean the religion that came out of Rome is responsible for translations today. All originals were gone by the time the protestants translated. Info was not so readily available back then like today.
God willed his name in his written word 7000 x-- satans will had it removed. All can see whose will is being accomplished in their translations.
God willed his name into his written word--- any other excuse is hogwash--- Those who love God, live by his will all the way. When satans will interferes, those who love God put God first no matter what. No excuses cut it.
You mean the religion that came out of Rome is responsible for translations today. All originals were gone by the time the protestants translated. Info was not so readily available back then like today.
God willed his name in his written word 7000 x-- satans will had it removed. All can see whose will is being accomplished in their translations.
So, where was God was Satan was entering the Garden of Eden?
Did God not know what his plan was, or know where he was at the time? Was it beyond Gods ability to prevent Satan from entering Eden?
Not to mention, how was a fallen angel and the 2 first human beings, able to communicate and understand each other?
(God was the ONLY one to make any of this possible)...So, who is truly responsible for Original Sin?!
Think about what would have happened, if Adam and Eve could not understand Satans words or vice versa?
I do not believe in original sin nor inherited sin. I also do not believe the garden of Eden is a literal story.
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